Corruption long predated capitalism, and has thrived under innumerable economic and political systems.
Corruption is about law, social attitudes, and power. Dictators tend to strip their countries of wealth and funnel it into their own pockets... because they can. Mugabe destroyed the economy of his country for nothing - to strip valuable agricultural assets off colonial farmers and put them in the hands of himself and his cronies. He made himself a billionaire whilst his country starved, and it wasn't "capitalism" or "colonialism" that did it.
Educated, free and politically involved populations tend to hold their governments to account. They install bureaucracies that are better at management, laws that squash fraud, remove governments that misrule.
Western capitalists, African dictators, the Chinese... they will exploit African countries because they have weak governance. But I think better governance will grow out of better human development, development needs economic growth, and investment can make that growth happen. In the meantime, corruption is just going to happen.
This is something I'd like to interrogate if you allow me - corruption is a broad concept so it'd be interesting to see what shape it would take under different systems. The definition I'll deploy will be one of hoarding material resources for private gain outside of the jurisdiction of the social system at hand. If you object to this, that's fine, please do point this out since I'm enjoying this thread. I'll also assume relatively normative definitions for the systems in question, and I'll assume that each one is larger and more complex in its overall organisation than the previous one, and that this can loosely be understood as an development of organisational systems.
Under tribalism, what would count as corruption? I'd assume hoarding of resources that could otherwise be deployed for the betterment of the ethnic group. It's relatively transparent, even in a small exchange economy, and is beholden to small-scale law/whatever punitive system is in place. Yet at the same time its material impact could be drastic - tribal leaders who sold their people to Europeans as slaves in exchange for guns to secure supremacy over other tribes led to ethnic strife and supremacy in many west and east African countries. Someone hoarding water, food, or any other valuable resource would too have a certain impact.
Under feudalism, corruption could easily take place under similar lines - hoarding of personal resources without paying dues to the feudal liege. Yet now we start to see a difference. In tribal structures, any member doing so in situations of scarcity can be seen as being corrupt, it hoarding in order to boost their own social station. A peasant would be too, in a small village/hamlet situation. Yet at the same time, a noble withholding personal wealth from the regent primarily affects the regent and their ability to use resources to expand their lands, to mobilise their vassals and to develop those lands. A lord serving under a king could also use corruption to their own benefit to expand their fiefdom, to develop it, or to use it as a political strategy in currying favour with other groups, to invest in trade, buy mercenaries etc. etc. None of this directly impacts the peasant as it would a tribal member in tribalism. Corruption over time begins to affect the kingdom over time in tandem, but a certain amount of corruption is relatively tolerable - after all, even an absolute ruler cannot always trust to know and to control to wealth or the ambition of those subject to him, just the ones who produce raw materials in the first place (i.e. peasants, craftsmen, miners and slaves). I'll leave aside monarchs for now, since arguably the wealth, power and politic are concentrated in their actions as such outside of some exceptions which would require their own analyses (constitutional monarchies, electoral monarchies, etc.).
So now we already have a manifestation of two different types. Obviously if you object to this, I'm fine to you pointing it out. Within the confines of the fairly modest analysis I've built up here, I think it's clear that corruption both has different effects in terms of scale (tribal unit vs. fiefdom/kingdom) the agents of corruption relative to that scale (tribal member vs. lord on a fiefdom/peasant in a hamlet) and the actual effects (survival of the tribe vs. economic instability/competition between lords and war vs. peasants becoming richer but largely being unable to use that wealth due to a system of strict inheritance). I don't think we can call this corruption necessarily, but let's run with this for now.
Now under capitalism. Much like before, someone hoards wealth for private purposes outside of the jurisdiction of the system at hand. The effects are multidinous - a single agent doing so can cost quite a lot depending on the scale of the wealth they have hoarded, much like tribalism and to an extent feudalism (though I don't think there's been major cases of fraud anywhere near the scale we've seen in capitalism in feudalism due to the punitive systems in place and the mode of law) in terms of how it impacts taxation and the flow of honest capital in a market. I'm not an economist, it should be stipulated. A bunch of agents doing this at once can have disastrous effects, with some of the most extreme being in cases like Zimbabwe, like the Soviet Union, Italy, etc. etc. A person's station and the relative extent of their corruption are important factors in determining this. A head of state hoarding wealth has significantly greater capacity for corruption, both in terms of material scale and with the manipulation of the state apparatus to get away with. Similarly to a lord, since they are in many ways the embodiment of the law and also have the material capabilities to suppress dissent to those below their station to enact their will. However, under capitalism, corruption chains are different. Say a peasant hoards grains and a lord hoards taxes. Under what circumstances could it be possible that they work together? Maybe they cut a deal, but a peasant has no legal authority over the lord so that a mutually beneficial situation may be enacted. In capitalism however, a corrupt foreman can work with a corrupt factory owner in tandem with a corrupt shareholder to embezzle significant amounts of money that leave catastrophic effects for the entire enterprise and the social context it's attached to. We already see this in China, in the Soviet Union. Chernobyl was one such case - individual technicians were complicit in the corruption on display, which manifested itself in corruption at the supervisors and all the way up to the party where the direct human costs were starting to become visible, all for the sake of personal gain so as to curry favour within the party to be awarded through premiums and privileges. Similar situations still occur in Russia where corruption can start from the level of an individual worker and continue as a chain to the greatest CEO.
So where am I going with this? Well, to stipulate that corruption, as a hoarding of private resources is something that has existed in all human systems hitherto enacted. It may even exist under communism (in the sense of a classless, stateless society - though this is a question in itself). But the fundamental shape corruption takes, who is complicit in it, and who benefits from a structural perspective, and how it can be resolved are significantly different I'd wager. From the smallest production unit up to the state itself, the shape is fundamentally different, as is the extent of benefits and their structural impacts. Punitive measures under tribalism were ensured in their totality by the proximity of its members, and corruption in terms of slavery was something that was relatively an aberration, but something that nonetheless led to the supremacy of a tribe over others. Corruption under feudalism can equally lead to the supremacy of specific lords, but the risks are much greater due to the concentration of power, and individual productive units in feudalism cannot sufficiently be corrupt individuals so as to massively impact the system overall. Similarly, one person stealing money from a workplace does not destroy a chain of production in capitalism, but a chain of corruption is something that is magnitudes worse in its effects than either of the previous systems. Albania losing its pension fund to a pyramid scheme is one such example.
I'd say that one can sustain this analysis to point out how different countries in different socio-historical contexts also fit under these descriptions and models. Mugabe being an example - he ushered in a new government with the ZANU-PF by revolting against apartheid minority rule. As the head of this movement, that assembled a new state on the ruins of the old, he was given total power under an ethno-nationalist pretext to take whatever resources he wanted with no legal repercussions. He and his army had the total monopoly on power, and if they didn't , they could rig elections and assassinate those they didn't like. At the same time, Zimbabwe was under massive international pressure, so the state at hand gave Mugabe the reigns to exploit the situation for wealthier countries and personally reap the rewards. The instruments were already in place, and there was little that the Zimbabwean people could do considering that they just cast off a previous regime that also exploited them ruthlessly. The impoverishment of education, wealth parity, etc. all then repertuate themselves in a neo-colonial spiral with nominal freedoms from oppressors. In that sense, corruption is both something that is a historically consistent aspect, but one that, much like the social systems it exists in, takes on completely different shapes particular to the system in place.