You can use the same argument in Roe for literally any other medical procedure. The argument wasn't at all specific to abortion."How does it not"? Other medical procedures simply were not banned by the Roe ruling. It concerned abortion, as you say yourself. What on earth are you talking about?
Tautology. It wasn't a state's decision before. Afterwards it was.
Yet the overturn of Roe is what made that possible. It was a direct result.
Hey, if you're happy to defer to SCOTUS justices knowing more about the law than us, will you agree with Clarence Thomas that the Roe reasoning can apply just as easily to Obergefell?
If it wasn't a state's decision before Roe, it's because it was never challenged legally then.
It made it possible but the overturn of Roe didn't take away any rights. Again, Roe was never about giving women any rights, it was giving doctors rights. You're also ignoring the fact that RBG is objectively right and Thomas is objectively wrong.