8 Countries That Have Declared Independence From England

[Charli]

Pffft, Independence, you lot were getting too old to stay at home anyway. /dismissive hand waving

 

[Ragnar47183]

Wow, remind me to never invite you prudes to a party. You all would just stand in the corner arguing whether or not the chips are to close to the vegetables.

 

[Albino Boo]

1.) Wales did

So neither Scotland, Wales or Ireland ever fought against the English for their independence? The Welsh never rebelled and declared their independence in 1400 and there wasn't 15 years of war between the two countries before Henry V brought them to heel? Edward I didn't meet the Guardians of Scotland in Norham in 1291 and force them to accept him as Lord Paramount of Scotland? Edward I didn't get King John of Scotland to swear homage to him in December of that year essentially making Scotland a vassal state? This didn't cause a war of independence to be waged by Scotland against the English? The English didn't sign a the "treaty of Edinburgh-Northamton" in 1328 were the English crown was forced to recognise the the Kingdom of Scotland as fully independent?

I guess you are right and everyone else is wrong. Stop the press! We need to re-write the history books because the 1st & 2nd Scottish wars of Independence and Last War of Independence never happened.

I'm not rewriting the History as someone who born in Scotland I'm going for the non Braveheart reality of Scottish history. Edward I claimed the feudal right to appoint the King Scotland, based on a legal claim. He was able to support a claimant for the Scottish throne by force arms. The lowland Scottish nobility denied these claims and was ultimately victorious in denying Edward II feudal rights. At no point did the King of England claim to be the King of Scotland or to establish direct rule. What you fail to understand is the Scotland, France and England were ruled by single nobility, all of which held land in all of the Kingdoms. The King of England did not declare independence from from France when he refused to recognise the French Kings feudal claim to England because he had done homage for his lands in France. You are projecting modern interpretations of nationhood that meant nothing to the nobility at the time. The treaty that you mention is an agreement between the King of England and Scotland that King of England had no feudal rights in Scotland. At the start of the 100 years war the constable of France and his armed retinue was given free passage across England to deal with a rebellion in his lands in Ireland. John Balliol, the deposed King of Scotland, died in his family Château in France. His son received English support in return for homage to the King of England as his feudal overlord, this event is led to Edward I invasion. So when I say the Scotland never declared independence I mean it, the Scottish position was the King of England had no feudal rights and never did rule in Scotland.

 

[dskod1]

8 Countries That Have Declared Independence From England

Today we celebrate the independence of the United States of America. In the spirit of the holiday let's also celebrate some other countries that also declared their independence from England. So let freedom ring and have a cup of tea on the Nanny-land.

Read Full Article

I really hope the person who wrote this will do more research on the subject matter next time they write an article. England refers to a area of land apart of great Britain (along with wales and Scotland). All three (along with Northern Ireland) are apart of the United Kingdom which political border encompasses the British Isles. (not including the Irish Republic)

The British Empire refers to all areas outside the British Isles (mostly) governed by the UK. The Article should not be "8 Countries That Have Declared Independence From England" but rather "8 Countries That Have Declared Independence From The British Empire". You could get away with "8 Countries That Have Declared Independence From The UK".

More detailed explanation by CPG Grey here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rNu8XDBSn10&feature=kp

 

[BeerTent]

I know these are supposed to be fun, and silly, and trying to rip off Cracked a little...

But this? I'm actually offended. Talk about scraping the bottom of the barrel. [Redacted]

 

[Macsen Wledig]

I'm not rewriting the History as someone who born in Scotland I'm going for the non Braveheart reality of Scottish history.

I haven't watched Braveheart in years, but please tell me what part of my post was lifted from Braveheart, so I can congratulate the writers for getting that part right.

Edward I claimed the feudal right to appoint the King Scotland, based on a legal claim. He was able to support a claimant for the Scottish throne by force arms. The lowland Scottish nobility denied these claims and was ultimately victorious in denying Edward II feudal rights. At no point did the King of England claim to be the King of Scotland or to establish direct rule.

So when Edward I made the Scottish nobility declare him Lord Paramount of Scotland and ordered that every Royal Scottish Castle be placed temporarily under his control and every Scottish official resign his office and be re-appointed by him and when he required all Scots to pay homage to him he wasn't establishing a direct rule?

What you fail to understand is the Scotland, France and England were ruled by single nobility

Firstly, cut the condescending tone, I know you've played a lot of crusader kings but that in no way makes you an authority on the subject. Secondly this is only true to the extent that they were all intermarrying, you would very rarely find a Scottish or Welsh noble holding an English office.

The King of England did not declare independence from from France when he refused to recognise the French Kings feudal claim to England because he had done homage for his lands in France.

The King of France never declared himself Lord Paramount of England and never had the arms to order every English Castle to be placed in his control. Apples and oranges come to mind.

You are projecting modern interpretations of nationhood that meant nothing to the nobility at the time.

I am doing no such thing.

The treaty that you mention is an agreement between the King of England and Scotland that King of England had no feudal rights in Scotland.

The treaty that I mentioned is a peace treaty. It brought an end to the First War of Scottish Independence, which had begun with the English invasion of Scotland in 1296. Now, why, pray tell would it stipulate that the English crown would have to recognise The Kingdom of Scotland as fully independent if the English crown wasn't trying to undermine that independence?

So when I say the Scotland never declared independence I mean it, the Scottish position was the King of England had no feudal rights and never did rule in Scotland.

So the wars of Scottish independence were called such because? Historians consider the Declaration of Arbroath a declaration of Scottish independence because?

1.) Wales did

I'm glad that you accept that your original post was nothing but bunkum.