Did Slavery in the Western World ended solely because of the Industrial Revolution?

[Eacaraxe_v1legacy]

The Industrial Revolution began between 1750 and 1840, depending on where you draw the line. The Empire outlawed slavery in 1833. That comes in the period of "during." ... Did the world's governments at the time ended Slavery out of the goodness of the hearts? Or simply because of the advent of the Industrial Revolution and the creation of Mechanized Labor.

I've had an alternate theory for a while about this: sugar.

As of 1800, nearly all Europe's imported sugar came from British and French colonies in the Americas. It was also a much more important, and valued, commodity than even cotton. The situation changed radically due to the Haitian revolution, and British blockade of sugar importation during the Napoleonic wars. The response was the development, cultivation, and refinement of beet sugar for continental use, giving Europeans a source for the commodity not dependent upon slavery or extensive, expensive, trans-oceanic logistics chains -- to the point that prior to WWI, over half the world's supply of sugar came from beet, not cane, cultivation.

This period -- the Napoleonic wars and its preceding decade or two -- were the heyday for the mechanization of sugar production. Which meant cheaper and wider-scale production, with less need for manpower.

In this, it's little surprise the British empire fought abolition down to the eyeteeth right up until the Baptist war.

The truly ironic thing about this, was one of the British empire's key justifications for colonizing Africa was to abolish slavery.