Hi all,
I got an AMD FX 4100 3.6GHz CPU for Christmas, which I what I asked for, but I later found out (after installing it herp-derp) that for my motherboard I needed the Phenom series. Since I probably won't be able to get a refund, I was seeing how much of the money I would get out of selling my FX CPU to cover buying the Phenom alternative (in terms of number of cores and speed), the Phenom II x4 975.
However, I found that the latter was significantly more than the one I'm stuck with. Is there a reason why 2 processors from different lines but with only small differences can be any different in terms of price (as in, about £80)?
Thanks in advance.
I got an AMD FX 4100 3.6GHz CPU for Christmas, which I what I asked for, but I later found out (after installing it herp-derp) that for my motherboard I needed the Phenom series. Since I probably won't be able to get a refund, I was seeing how much of the money I would get out of selling my FX CPU to cover buying the Phenom alternative (in terms of number of cores and speed), the Phenom II x4 975.
However, I found that the latter was significantly more than the one I'm stuck with. Is there a reason why 2 processors from different lines but with only small differences can be any different in terms of price (as in, about £80)?
Thanks in advance.