ADDLibrarian said:
You might want to check what year that dictionary is. Homosexuality hasn't been classified as a "disorder" since, I think the 70s (not sure when exactly it changed).
Read the post, the full post, before responding to it. If you had done so, you would not have responded with the comment you did respond with.
If you have not done so, what gives you the right to post? As long as my post was, clearly it had a very complex chain of thought. If you did not read any of it, you are not commenting on the thread, you are commenting on what you want to comment on based on the title of the thread in the space dedicated to the tread and should just comment that shit elsewhere.
Zachary Amaranth said:
ADDLibrarian said:
You might want to check what year that dictionary is. Homosexuality hasn't been classified as a "disorder" since, I think the 70s (not sure when exactly it changed).
That, of course, is based on the DSM. And the DSM/medical definitions are not necessarily the same as the dictionary's definition. Meriam-Webster online is probably up to date, but is it giving clinical advice? No.
Kind of like how the concept of a scientific theory and a layperson's idea of a theory are two different things.
Lilani said:
ADDLibrarian said:
You might want to check what year that dictionary is. Homosexuality hasn't been classified as a "disorder" since, I think the 70s (not sure when exactly it changed).
He's using the technical meaning of "disorder" to make his claim. By his logic, not liking chocolate would also be disorder.
From y'alls responses, I take it neither of you actually finished reading the OP either.
I have no idea why I still come to this site. I try to make an interesting point via giving a very startling example and nobody reads long enough to fucking get it.