I was referring to the statementarragonder said:wouldn't it still qualify as an equivocation fallacy?Lukeje said:The statement as such is not really a fallacy. The fallacy lies in the fact that such a statement has nothing at all to do with the issue at hand.
This is not a fallacy. It's just irrelevant. As has been pointed out, however, any attempt to use this statement to somehow discredit the possibility of gay marriage is an equivocation fallacy.Gay people CAN get married as long as it is to someone of the opposite sex.
Sure is. It's the logic fallacy of totally missing the god damned point. Anyone, especially Orson Scott Card, who even suggests that homosexuals can still marry people of the opposite sex are stupid. That's all there is to it.Juor said:I'm pretty certain this is a logical fallacy because it can be reversed, I'm just not certain what it's called.
No, haven't you seen Boondocks? She's just a professional troll. XDGamerKT said:Ann Coulter is an idiot.
Y'know, I saw that episode before I knew who Ann Coulter was. Seeing how similar she is to her "caricature" was hilarious.8-Bit_Jack said:No, haven't you seen Boondocks? She's just a professional troll. XDGamerKT said:Ann Coulter is an idiot.
Wow, that is an awesome re-write! Thanks a bunch! Seeing it written that way makes it much easier to work with and see the flaws.Logiclul said:Talked to a friend of mine who is somewhat versed in formal logic, and he says it is an issue of division of a set. He rewrote the argument like this:
Set of all people P
P(g) = gays
P(s) = straight
It is the most good and the most fair to allow P(s) to marry members of the opposite sex and only members of the opposite sex. Therefore, it is the most good and the most fair to allow all things P to marry members of the opposite sex and only members of the opposite sex.
This is a fallacy because what is true for a part is not necessarily true for the whole.