correct me if I'm wrong (and I may well be) but I don't think a state has the right to murder someone without evidence?Dimitriov said:The historical precedent really derives from the fact that only the state (or a monarch etc.) has the right to kill someone. So a murderer has usurped the state's right over its own citizens and thus is punished by the state.
so If a multiple murderer (or hell, a multiple rapist, or torturer, or other kind of genuine sicko)is given the death penalty, its not because only the state has the right to rape or kill people without trial, because the state DOESNT have those rights (at least in the UK, the state doesn't have the right to kill people....at all, to my knowledge)
But thinking about when the UK got rid of the Death penalty brought up an interesting question.
If someone does horrific things because of genuine mental illness (some sort of congenital mental disorder or what have you) is that actually there fault? At what point do we say "that person isn't acting of their own free will"?
I mean obviously, if someone does something from this, they need to be separated from people they could hurt for the rest of their lives, but killing them in cold blood has got to be morally wrong, surely?
but then going on from that....wouldn't you say that anyone who murders or rapes is "insane"? I would, without a doubt, say that anyone who lacks basic human empathy has at the least, a serious mental disorder, so Is anything they do due to that enough of their fault that they should be killed?
imprisoned, in the interest of protecting others, absolutely.
killed?
I cant see it.
I realise thata rgument is controversial as hell, but still.