if the improper language is used long enough it will become a word "irregardless" of its correctness. i would also like to note that irregardless is considered correct on my computer.
That's very interesting. I'm not a linguist, so I didn't realize that the use of double-negatives was so common in other languages, or that it's not always correct practice to try to dissect prefixes and suffixes like I did in my original post.Jaime_Wolf said:PREPARE FOR WALL OF TEXTDanDeFool said:If there's one thing I can't stand, it's the word "irregardless".
Why? Because it's clearly not a real word! It doesn't make any sense!
The prefix "ir-" clearly means "not", like how "irrelevant" means "not relevant". But "regardless" means "without regard to", so "irregardless" means "not without regard to". It's a blatant double-negative, and it baffles me how anyone can stomach such a grotesque bastardization.
However, it's coming into common usage, which brings me to the discussion. I use improper English words, like "ain't", myself, and I'll be the first to admit that I don't know all the ins-and-outs of grammar and punctuation. So what do you think? Does common usage supersede grammatical rules, or is wrong wrong, regardless (or "irregardless", as the case may be) of common practice?
(I promise it's worth reading if you actually have strong feelings either way on this topic)
(1) Proper and improper are socioeconomic designators with regard to language. Language itself gives us no metric for what is proper or improper.
(1a) "Ain't", for instance, is a perfectly fine word. I've yet to hear any argument against its use with a linguistic reason given, not even a bad argument with a bad reason, and I'm doubtful that such an argument even exists to be made.
(2) Prefixes don't necessarily have to "mean" things. I know you were taught this in school and I'm very sorry that you were lied to. Prefixes only seem to mean independent things because a lot of the words bearing them have some similarity in meaning. While English tends to be relatively regular about this and some languages are downright dictatorial, there are plenty of languages with prefixes that change the meaning of roots they're attached to so wildly that it's not even possible to give a "meaning" for the prefix (see Russian derivational verbal morphology).
(3) Deriving a word that means the same thing as the word it's derived from is not at all uncommon. There are plenty of words in common usage today that were derived in just this way.
(4) The lack of "logic" in "double negatives" is a product of relatively recent commentary on language by amateurs with little actual experience in what they're talking about. A vast number of languages use "double negatives" for simple negation everywhere (French when negating objects "He didn't meet nobody", Russian when negating any noun "Nobody didn't go nowhere"). The idea that two linguistic negatives make a positive grew out of the development of formal logic and is based on a mistaken notion that words with negative polarity can be perfectly modeled with the formal negative.
So no, I don't have a problem with it. And if you do, you should recognise that your problem with it has no linguistic justification. As such, any problem you have with it is really just a problem you have with the sort of people who use it (similar to "ain't").
Common usage does not supersede it. It just means people aren't taking into consideration what they are saying. "I couldn't care less" vs "I could care less". People aren't thinking about the actual words they are saying but the meaning itself is understood.DanDeFool said:However, it's coming into common usage, which brings me to the discussion. I use improper English words, like "ain't", myself, and I'll be the first to admit that I don't know all the ins-and-outs of grammar and punctuation. So what do you think? Does common usage supersede grammatical rules, or is wrong wrong, regardless (or "irregardless", as the case may be) of common practice?
or people that type "I could of done that" when they mean "I could've done that"mireko said:It does annoy me. Not as much as "for all intensive purposes", but it does annoy me.
...Skullkid4187 said:It's like using the word "bigot", every human being falls under that word. so a double neggie.
Seriously? "Intensive purposes?" The phrase is "For all intents and purposes..."mireko said:It does annoy me. Not as much as "for all intensive purposes", but it does annoy me.
Well, if you want to be that way about it...Drakulea said:Erm... did anybody bother to check a dictionary? Or a wikipedia article if found on the topic?
I mean,really, this is a linguistic topic, there's people educated in linguistics.
THREE pages, not one single academic reference quote, only self-serving 'opinions' ... what's with this anti-intellectualism?
Sure we're all likely 18-35 years old with a healthy disdain, past,present or future, of compulsory learning. But really, people.
This thread is like watching Bible fanatics "debunking" evolution : they have NO education on the subject, a COMPLETE disdain for scientific rigor, and a WHOLE lot of ego.
*Sigh* ...
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irregardless
... What's next, a poll on the law of gravity? Opinions on quantum mechanics? Links to youtube or pictures with nazis in a "debate" about the distance between the Earth and Moon?
I apologize, but some of these attempts above at linguistic analysis from people here who obviously aren't educated on the subject reminds me of the "I can do science me!" segment of a show called "Brainiac" (google is your friend)
It's cringe-inducing, like asking random Americans about where Romania is. ( "It's on EARTH?!?" )
EDIT : Praise God for "The Intertubes", but really, since when did (uninformed) opinion and (informed) education end up being equal?