Safaia said:This is still a debate? What if the woman blacks out? What if she doesn't remember giving 'consent?' Someone on the first page mentioned that if you break the law while drunk you're still held liable as if you were sober. If you take advantage of someone's inebriated state of mind, whether they got there willingly or not, is still rape. A friend of mine got drunk in high school and was raped by two men claiming she gave consent. It was still rape. Someone I once trusted took advantage of the fact that I was drunk and the fact that I trusted him to assault me later claiming I said 'yes' I don't remember it. It was still rape.
Seriously, this is still a debate? I thought this conversation ended years ago.
That is fucked up, under that interpretation a drunk man who is seduced by a drunk woman is always committing a crime by having sex with her. That would mean that any husband would be committing rape if he had sex with his wife after they both drank champagne.pyrate said:Find it hard to believe how many people are misinformed on this subject.
In the US rape laws vary state to state that could effect the outcome of the case, but one constant is the person giving consent cannot be mentally incapacitated. If a person is drunk to the point where they can no longer reasonably make decisions then they cannot legally give consent. It is the same in Australia and I am pretty sure it is the same in the UK.
Summary, most of us on here would be from a country where it is considered rape to have sex with a women who is drunk to the point where she cannot be expected to make decisions. There is no personal view involved in this, anyone that says it is not rape is wrong.
Yes, but where is the line, nobody is saying that if a woman blacks out or is unconscious it isn't rape, but where is the point at which a person cannot give consent? One drink? Two? Three? Is it based on body weight? At what point do you think you can't give consent, and at what point do other people think they can't give consent? It's not as easily resolved as it would seem. If you were given a line up of random people in different states of being and I asked you to talk to them for 20 minutes each would you be able to tell which one was sober, which one had had a single beer or a single martini and which one had had a number of drinks but still wasn't "Drunk" and which one actually was the bonafide unable to give consent party. I think very few people would be able to make those distinctions while sober, let alone after even ONE beer not to mention after several.Safaia said:This is still a debate? What if the woman blacks out? What if she doesn't remember giving 'consent?' Someone on the first page mentioned that if you break the law while drunk you're still held liable as if you were sober. If you take advantage of someone's inebriated state of mind, whether they got there willingly or not, is still rape. A friend of mine got drunk in high school and was raped by two men claiming she gave consent. It was still rape. Someone I once trusted took advantage of the fact that I was drunk and the fact that I trusted him to assault me later claiming I said 'yes' I don't remember it. It was still rape.
Seriously, this is still a debate? I thought this conversation ended years ago.
Okay, I knew that couldn't have been the way it works, thanks for clearing it up.pyrate said:It gets tricky when both parties are too drunk to consent. In most cases it is left up to the prosecutor of whether to press the charges. One aspect that usually comes into it is who initiated the sex. Since in the example the women initiated the sex it is extremely unlikely the man would be held responsible. I cannot find any cases where anyone has been convicted of rape in a case like this.Do4600 said:That is fucked up, under that interpretation a drunk man who is seduced by a drunk woman is always committing a crime by having sex with her. That would mean that any husband would be committing rape if he had sex with his wife after they both drank champagne.pyrate said:Find it hard to believe how many people are misinformed on this subject.
In the US rape laws vary state to state that could effect the outcome of the case, but one constant is the person giving consent cannot be mentally incapacitated. If a person is drunk to the point where they can no longer reasonably make decisions then they cannot legally give consent. It is the same in Australia and I am pretty sure it is the same in the UK.
Summary, most of us on here would be from a country where it is considered rape to have sex with a women who is drunk to the point where she cannot be expected to make decisions. There is no personal view involved in this, anyone that says it is not rape is wrong.
That cannot be the legal connotation here.
EDIT: It also means that if anybody who is drunk gets into an accident and is still conscience that person would not be able to give legal consent to a doctor to receive medical treatment, that doctor would have to call a legal representative of the drunk to perform anything that isn't triage.
The key point is the level of intoxication. Someone can be under the influence and still be mentally fit to make decisions. Rape only applies when it is deemed a person was drunk beyond the point of being able to make a reasonable decision.
As for medical practice, there are different rules and regulations. Doctors generally have the right to assume consent for necessary treatment.
As soon as someone starts drinking, then, assume it's not proper to have sex, unless you two know each other well and have a genuine understanding of what you both would want (more likely than not, this would involve being in a steady relationship with someone, at which point you'd hopefully be in sync with your partner sexually. If you can't tell, err on the side of caution.Do4600 said:Yes, but where is the line, nobody is saying that if a woman blacks out or is unconscious it isn't rape, but where is the point at which a person cannot give consent? One drink? Two? Three? Is it based on body weight? At what point do you think you can't give consent, and at what point do other people think they can't give consent? It's not as easily resolved as it would seem. If you were given a line up of random people in different states of being and I asked you to talk to them for 20 minutes each would you be able to tell which one was sober, which one had had a single beer or a single martini and which one had had a number of drinks but still wasn't "Drunk" and which one actually was the bonafide unable to give consent party. I think very few people would be able to make those distinctions while sober, let alone after even ONE beer not to mention after several.
I'm not asking for advice my friend, I'm trying to point out that this is never going to be a simple issue. You assume a previous and extended relationship and a situation in which one can observe that a person has been drinking, this is not always the case, it's also not always the case that people having sex necessarily care about each other or EVEN LIKE EACH OTHER. You can ask them if they're drunk to ensure they're not, well I can give you first hand accounts of me asking people if they're drunk and them lying through their drunken teeth. So how is one to know? And even if you trust that they're telling the truth and you can't tell if their drunk or not, they still might be. So what do you do? Carry a breathalyzer?minuialear said:As soon as someone starts drinking, then, assume it's not proper to have sex, unless you two know each other well and have a genuine understanding of what you both would want (more likely than not, this would involve being in a steady relationship with someone, at which point you'd hopefully be in sync with your partner sexually. If you can't tell, err on the side of caution.Do4600 said:Yes, but where is the line, nobody is saying that if a woman blacks out or is unconscious it isn't rape, but where is the point at which a person cannot give consent? One drink? Two? Three? Is it based on body weight? At what point do you think you can't give consent, and at what point do other people think they can't give consent? It's not as easily resolved as it would seem. If you were given a line up of random people in different states of being and I asked you to talk to them for 20 minutes each would you be able to tell which one was sober, which one had had a single beer or a single martini and which one had had a number of drinks but still wasn't "Drunk" and which one actually was the bonafide unable to give consent party. I think very few people would be able to make those distinctions while sober, let alone after even ONE beer not to mention after several.
If people (in this thread in general; not necessarily you) are going to argue that one can't claim consent in a compromised state because people can't tell that one's drunk, then it stands to reason that we can just as legitimately argue that one can't claim innocence just because one didn't bother to ensure his/her partner was in a non-compromised state.
It's always better to be safe than sorry, and frankly, if you give a crap about the person you're about to sex up, it should come naturally to want to wait until your partner's not intoxicated/potentially unable to make smart decisions to do something that can have serious ramifications. The only exceptions to that being if you two have an understanding based on an existing relationship, etc.
Then don't have sex with people unless you can verify they're not under any influence of any drug. Can't tell if a person is under the influence? Don't know how many drinks that chick's had? Don't sleep with her. Don't know if that guy's sober enough to give informed consent? Don't have sex with him. Lacking proof that someone is legitimately able to give consent? Then don't have sex with that person.Do4600 said:I'm not asking for advice my friend, I'm trying to point out that this is never going to be a simple issue. You assume a previous and extended relationship and a situation in which one can observe that a person has been drinking, this is not always the case, it's also not always the case that people having sex necessarily care about each other or EVEN LIKE EACH OTHER. You can ask them if they're drunk to ensure they're not, well I can give you first hand accounts of me asking people if they're drunk and them lying through their drunken teeth. So how is one to know? And even if you trust that they're telling the truth and you can't tell if their drunk or not, they still might be. So what do you do? Carry a breathalyzer?minuialear said:As soon as someone starts drinking, then, assume it's not proper to have sex, unless you two know each other well and have a genuine understanding of what you both would want (more likely than not, this would involve being in a steady relationship with someone, at which point you'd hopefully be in sync with your partner sexually. If you can't tell, err on the side of caution.Do4600 said:Yes, but where is the line, nobody is saying that if a woman blacks out or is unconscious it isn't rape, but where is the point at which a person cannot give consent? One drink? Two? Three? Is it based on body weight? At what point do you think you can't give consent, and at what point do other people think they can't give consent? It's not as easily resolved as it would seem. If you were given a line up of random people in different states of being and I asked you to talk to them for 20 minutes each would you be able to tell which one was sober, which one had had a single beer or a single martini and which one had had a number of drinks but still wasn't "Drunk" and which one actually was the bonafide unable to give consent party. I think very few people would be able to make those distinctions while sober, let alone after even ONE beer not to mention after several.
If people (in this thread in general; not necessarily you) are going to argue that one can't claim consent in a compromised state because people can't tell that one's drunk, then it stands to reason that we can just as legitimately argue that one can't claim innocence just because one didn't bother to ensure his/her partner was in a non-compromised state.
It's always better to be safe than sorry, and frankly, if you give a crap about the person you're about to sex up, it should come naturally to want to wait until your partner's not intoxicated/potentially unable to make smart decisions to do something that can have serious ramifications. The only exceptions to that being if you two have an understanding based on an existing relationship, etc.
Drunk enough to consent is a bit of a wide gap, you basically have to be passed out and not be able to say anything.awesomeClaw said:Ok, let´s say you´re at a party. At the party, you meet a cute young man(or woman, or transgender or whoever you want to fuck) and you two get along nicely. You both get a little tipsy and the man/woman asks you if you want to go home with him/her. You go home with him/her and have a night of awkward drunk sex WHICH NONE OF YOU OBJECT TO DURING THE ACTUAL SEX.
HOWEVER, the morning after, the man/woman says that S/he regrets sleeping with you, and now claims that you raped him/her. Is she/he in the right?
Personally, if you *can* consent, your consent is almost always valid. You should know where your limits are. Note: I am talking about being drunk enough that you *can* actually talk and orally(heh) consent. I don´t need to tell you having sex with someone unconcious is rape. I´m also not talking about the cases where someone put something in your drink. Putting something in the other persons drink, is rape, since you actively tricked the person into going over his/her limits.
But what do you think? Am I just a sick victimblamer(although I believe there is not a victim in thise case?), am I thinking completely straight? Something inbetween?