No matter how many times I read this book and analyse it for English Literature, one question always keeps popping up in my mind. Arguably, the whole point of the novel, or, at least, the driving force behind the whole plot, is the law of entailment, and that it couldn't be overruled (Austen even mentions this when Jane and Lizzy attempt to explain what the fuck is going on to their incompetent mother), meaning that all females had to come out into society, find a rich man and get married, or else, as in this case, the estate would be passed to the next male heir, and, if there was no direct male heir, the estate would be given to a distant relation and they would be turned out of house and home.
My question is this: Why is Lady Catherine's estate (Rosings) not entailed? Austen mentions that she is a widow, and that she has retained the estate, but never explains how. Surely this is a pretty big plot hole? Or am I failing to look at it from the correct angle?
My question is this: Why is Lady Catherine's estate (Rosings) not entailed? Austen mentions that she is a widow, and that she has retained the estate, but never explains how. Surely this is a pretty big plot hole? Or am I failing to look at it from the correct angle?
