I wonder if someone in these boards would be likely to prove that i exists, and show it in the number line.
DaBigCheez said:function
That's kind of what I saw. The derivative of the right side (when removing the hand-wavy-ness) ends up as:klakkat said:The problem is with the derivative. the expansion is fine, but by the chain rule you have an extra factor of x you didn't account for; that handwaved in 'x times' is still a function of x.
Marbas is right. You're bastardizing x² into a line of slope x at whatever point you are testing and then comparing that to the derivative of x². It comes out different because you mistakenly changed the equation into something else.Marbas said:You are telling lies.4. As these are the same equation, their derivative must be the same. Take the derivative of both sides:
d(x^2)/dx = d((x + x + x + ...) x times)/dx
2x = (1 + 1 + 1 + ...) x times.
d((x*x)/dx = x+x by the product rule.
That sum of yours isn't a standalone function, it's the result of a function.
What you did there was take the derivative your sum incorrectly.
I stripped out everything except for the two really bad steps. Five is the one that's the tip off for your proof being wrong.DaBigCheez said:5. Condense the right side:
2x = x
6. Divide through by x:
2 = 1
This is the other big time issue I see. Even ignoring that dx/dx wouldn't actually yield a derivative in any real way (since you'd be taking the change in x over the change in x, which wouldn't offer any derivative other than one), you don't properly derive the right side.DaBigCheez said:4. As these are the same equation, their derivative must be the same. Take the derivative of both sides:
d(x^2)/dx = d((x + x + x + ...) x times)/dx
2x = (1 + 1 + 1 + ...) x times.