In order to be incapable of physical arousal, one would have to have suffered some sort of damage to the nervous or circulatory system. Attraction is not necessary, hence why women can rape men. An asexual man could agree to and have sex. They just wouldn't have any emotional drive to do it.Xiado said:Sexuality's a spectrum, imo, so people who like men more then women while still liking women would have no problem having kids. There's also a desire for children that is removed from sexual feeling. When you couple that with societal pressure toward heterosexuality throughout history, it's not unlikely that gay men or at least gay leaning men would spread their genes. Of course, there's always the possibility of random mutation causing both nonsexuality and homosexuality, but this is far more unlikely to occur on a level that lends about 7% of people a certain sexuality as homosexuality does. In fact, it's the only statistically relevant way for genetic nonsexuals to occur short of nonsexual women being raped.Unsilenced said:*snip*
In short,
Gay gene: Rape, Bisexuals passing genes down, random mutation, cultural pressure
Nonsexual gene: Rape, random mutation (A true nonsexual man would not be able to give in to cultural pressure due to inability to get aroused, nonsexual woman could theoretically, but the conditions would be similar to rape, it's a gray area)
Gays are still more likely to occur.
Edit; Also, homosexuality as a mutation simply requires a change in the target of desire, nonsexuality as a mutation requires a far greater change in one or all of the parts of the human reproductive and hormonal systems. Also, as you claim to be nonsexual, can you actually gety an erection, climax, or feel sexual desire? Or have you just never wanted to or felt like having sex? There is a difference.
Different asexuals are... well, different, but I personally just don't want to have sex. I still have sexual feelings, but not for other people.
Genetics, for the most part, don't operate in an on-off way by direct genotype-phenotype coordination. Obviously not all gays are the children of gays, and gays that reproduce do not always have gay children. In fact, unless I'm mistaken, the rate of homosexuality isn't any higher. What can happen though are genes that give predispositions. If there's a gene that, in males, makes them less sexually aggressive, then an individual with that gene dominant would be more likely to end up asexual based on the hormone balance and other genetic traits.
And asexuality isn't that radical of a psychological change from heterosexuality. Just take the way a straight man feels about other men and copy/paste to women.
Our species does a lot of things that aren't often found in nature, but that's besides the point. If the desire to fuck is so universal, you'd think it would be hard to suppress it before it ever presented itself, don't you? A behavior must be exhibited before it can be conditioned against.Angryman101 said:I was in no way inferring that all abnormal personality traits originate from trauma. Being straight or gay is determined by physiology, most likely.
But a complete lack of sex drive despite pristine health is something I have yet to see outside of our species. To lack such a basic drive, something must have transpired to classically train them to have a neutral or averse attitude towards intimacy.