so on a psychology test back in college had the following question
Explain all of the similarities and differences between 1 and 2.
Explain all of the similarities and differences between 1 and 2.
thinking question
- Thread starter KnifeyMcStaberson
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Haha, the professor is judging you guys based on your answers!
Do you talk about the shape? Do you say that they are worth different amounts? Do you say that there is no real difference as they both are man-made constructs depicting equally abstract concepts? Do you write 1 is the loneliness number...? It's for the lulz my friend.
I bet the TAs and Prof grading the exams had a lot of fun eating their pizza and reading the answers.
Do you talk about the shape? Do you say that they are worth different amounts? Do you say that there is no real difference as they both are man-made constructs depicting equally abstract concepts? Do you write 1 is the loneliness number...? It's for the lulz my friend.
I bet the TAs and Prof grading the exams had a lot of fun eating their pizza and reading the answers.
erm... 1 and 2 are both positive integers, written in Arabic numerals. Both are also part of the base numbers in any numerical system above binairy. 1 is odd, whereas 2 is even. 2 is also a prime number while 1 isn't. Can't quite think of any other similarities/differences of any significance between the two.
Now to explain them.
Let's see. Both are written in Arabic numerals due to strong Arabic influences in the Dark Ages I presume. 1 is odd, because dividing by 2 doesn't return an integer, which 2 does. 2 is a prime number because it only returns an integer when divided by one, or itself. 1 isn't a prime number due to dividing by 1 being exaclty the same as dividing by itself.
Is this the intended awnser?
EDIT: 1 requires less ink when writing than 2, and would use less memory on a computer using a binairy system, if numbers weren't saved in bit words of predetermined length.
Now to explain them.
Let's see. Both are written in Arabic numerals due to strong Arabic influences in the Dark Ages I presume. 1 is odd, because dividing by 2 doesn't return an integer, which 2 does. 2 is a prime number because it only returns an integer when divided by one, or itself. 1 isn't a prime number due to dividing by 1 being exaclty the same as dividing by itself.
Is this the intended awnser?
EDIT: 1 requires less ink when writing than 2, and would use less memory on a computer using a binairy system, if numbers weren't saved in bit words of predetermined length.