Should I have put this in religion and politics? I thought maybe, but it's more philosophical...
Anyway. My mom is taking a psychology course and she was telling me about her class discussion on free will. We seemed to have a lot of trouble talking about it, as did they, and a brief google-reference to some scholarly article out of Stanford has given me little insight into the matter (probably because it's too long for 2 AM and I only read the intro).
Her idea seems to be thus: Free will is a person's ability to choose between available options without the influence of external factors. She supposes that if she has bread, ham, and turkey, then she can make a ham, turkey, or... turkam sandwich, and no one and nothing can stop her from deciding (if not necessarily making) what lunch item she wants. Therefore, she has free will.
My idea is about like this: In the above situation, she "could" choose one of three sandwiches, but she will choose a ham sandwich because she got sick off turkey last week and the sight of it makes her wretch. So there were really no options except ham. An external factor has influenced her decision. Ergo, she has no free will.
The metaphor seems to favor the first argument because it sounds less ridiculous, but in more abstract terms, I think free will, if you can say the idea has any meaning in the first place, is a moot point because every action you take, even an irrational one, is determined by past experience. So even though you "could" make another choice, or do something else, there is once choice that you will inevitably make because that is what every event leading up to it has caused you to choose. In other words, when I think of choices made under the supposition of free will, they always beg the question, "why that choice?" I find that this question always has an answer, at least a hypothetical one. So could you not attribute the causation of the action to the answer to that question, and not the "choice" of the individual?
So: free will. Do we have it? More importantly, what is it exactly?
Anyway. My mom is taking a psychology course and she was telling me about her class discussion on free will. We seemed to have a lot of trouble talking about it, as did they, and a brief google-reference to some scholarly article out of Stanford has given me little insight into the matter (probably because it's too long for 2 AM and I only read the intro).
Her idea seems to be thus: Free will is a person's ability to choose between available options without the influence of external factors. She supposes that if she has bread, ham, and turkey, then she can make a ham, turkey, or... turkam sandwich, and no one and nothing can stop her from deciding (if not necessarily making) what lunch item she wants. Therefore, she has free will.
My idea is about like this: In the above situation, she "could" choose one of three sandwiches, but she will choose a ham sandwich because she got sick off turkey last week and the sight of it makes her wretch. So there were really no options except ham. An external factor has influenced her decision. Ergo, she has no free will.
The metaphor seems to favor the first argument because it sounds less ridiculous, but in more abstract terms, I think free will, if you can say the idea has any meaning in the first place, is a moot point because every action you take, even an irrational one, is determined by past experience. So even though you "could" make another choice, or do something else, there is once choice that you will inevitably make because that is what every event leading up to it has caused you to choose. In other words, when I think of choices made under the supposition of free will, they always beg the question, "why that choice?" I find that this question always has an answer, at least a hypothetical one. So could you not attribute the causation of the action to the answer to that question, and not the "choice" of the individual?
So: free will. Do we have it? More importantly, what is it exactly?