Who was "I"?

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Khedive Rex

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Jun 1, 2008
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You'll forgive me. It's late and when it gets late my mind begins to wander. In this particular case I think it's stumbled on something vaguely entertaining if nothing else.

[HEADING=2]The Logic[/HEADING]

1) "I" must always be capitalized, whether it appears at the begining of a sentence or not.

2) Proper nouns are the only other category of words that share this trait. Therefore -

3) "I" is a proper noun.
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1) Being a proper noun, "I" is the name of a specific person place or object.

2) "I" is exclusively used to denote people and not places or objects (except when used in personification from the perspective of the place or object). Therefore -

3) "I" is the name of a person
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1) The word "I" has been used to refer to the speaker at least since the conception of Modern English.

2) Modern English was concieved and fell into popular use around 1550, roughly 460 years ago. Therefore -

3) "I", the person, is dead.
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1) "I"'s name lives on as a word to refer to whomever is speaking.

2) Other men whose names have become words in their own right (Such as Machiavelli or the Earl of Sandwich) completed deeds in their lifetime that justified their name's addition to the English language (such as inventing sandwichs, or being an incredably manipulative bastard). Therefore -

3) "I" completed one or many deeds that cemented his name as synonymous with whomever was speaking at the time (which, in practise, means his name is synonymous with everyone.)

[HEADING=2]The Logical Conclusion[/HEADING]

Around the 16th century there was an incredably hip person named I. His history has been lost but it can be assumed he did something completely outstanding because even centuries later his name is used to refer to one's self. Whether this was added to the language because people at the time thought he was so cool they wanted to be him or because he perfectly represented the common man so much that when people thought of themselves they thought of I, remains a mystery.

[HEADING=2]The Point of the Thread[/HEADING]

Who do you think I was? What deeds did he accomplish to merit his name becoming a word? The goal of this thread is to reveal the hidden history behind a man who has been forgotten to time. With any luck, we'll be able to rewrite the destroyed biography of the mysterious I.

Feel free to make outlandish guesses (He was the first person to beat Chuck Norris in a starring contest ect.) but, if you can, try to base your guesses on observable fact. Make intelligent observations. Deduce things.

For example:

He was probably English - I is an English word after all.
It's possible he refered to himself in the third person - "I want a soda"
He may not have had perfect grammer - "I want a soda"

Have at it! Who was I?

If any of you actually know why "I" is always capitalized you can spoil the fun and tell us ... Just know that doing so will make me sad.
 

bad peanut

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May 22, 2009
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I see where you are comming from. Although I find it interesting it's late, and when it's late for me I tend to care less. I will give it some thought and come back and reply tomorrow. I'll also have to do some reading up on it.

Used fives "I"'s in that =)
 

Knight Templar

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Prehaps he was the inventor of France.
One day a large group of english people decided that they were going to leave, and "I" lead them to freedom. He battled dragons and invented the kite. He pretended to be his friend and as such spoke in the third person.
To mock him the english talked like him with funny accents.

Yeah, that would work
[sup] I'm kinda proud of that.[/sup]
 

phwbt

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I feel like ruining it for anyone who wants to know or can't help themselves from clicking on a spoiler link.
The Barnhart Dictionary of Etymology (Wilson, 1988, ISBN
0-8242-0745-9) says: "~I~ pron. 1137 i; later I (about 1250,
in The Story of Genesis and Exodus); developed from the unstressed
form of Old English (about 725) ic singular pronoun of the first
person (nominative case). Modern and Middle English I developed
from earlier i in the stressed position. I came to be written
with a capital letter thereby making it a distinct word and avoiding
misreading handwritten manuscripts.
In the northern and midland
dialects of England the capitalized form I appeared about 1250.
In the south of England, where Old English ic early shifted in
pronunciation to ich (by palatalization), the form I did not
become established until the 1700's (although it appears
sporadically before that time)."
 

Glerken

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I is me.
In the future, I get a time machine and a clone generator. I then make millions of myself, all named I. My army of I's then go on to make everyone believe that they are also I.

And I, making people believe they were I, now always say I.
 

The_Echo

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If "I" was a person who did something to become a reference to oneself, perhaps he (she?) was supremely narcissistic.
 

Khedive Rex

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EcoEclipse said:
If "I" was a person who did something to become a reference to oneself, perhaps he (she?) was supremely narcissistic.
Ah, there's an option. Perhaps s/he was like the Machiavelli of ego and I is used commonly today to mock him/her.

Also the possibility that "I" was female is interesting. After all, I is used by both sexes to refer to themselves.

[HEADING=2]List of possible great deeds "I" accomplished:[/HEADING]

Inventing Gravity (The Isaac Newton approach)

Inventing France.

Inventing Kites

Fighting Dragons.

Using a time-machine and a cloning machine to take over the world.

... Being Marwood (I don't know who Marwood is)
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All very interesting but I'm not sure sure they're all compatible. For example, how could "I" be both Isaac Newton and Marwood? This will take further investigating.
 
Apr 24, 2009
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Maybe he was a politician or someone who frequently spoke in public so that instead of people saying things like "Johnathan of Earlwood agrees with the proposed statement" they simply referred to themselves as I to simplify things.

Wouldn't the same reasoning you used in the article apply to other languages like "Je"?


EDIT: Seems I need to brush up on my French grammar rules, je isn't capitalized like I is.
 

Knight Templar

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Khedive Rex said:
All very interesting but I'm not sure sure they're all compatible. For example, how could "I" be both Isaac Newton and Marwood? This will take further investigating.
Well if one were to travle through time they would change their name to avoid suspicion.
 

Khedive Rex

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DJ Lord Destructocon said:
Maybe he was a politician or someone who frequently spoke in public so that instead of people saying things like "Johnathan of Earlwood agrees with the proposed statement" they simply referred to themselves as I to simplify things.

Wouldn't the same reasoning you used in the article apply to other languages like "Je"?


EDIT: Seems I need to brush up on my French grammar rules, je isn't capitalized like I is.
A POLITICIAN!!! I think this is a very good guess indeed. It gives a strong rationale why people would refer to themselves as "I", in this case merely to save time.

And as you rightly say, I is unique as a capitalized word. Je is uncapitalized except at the begining of sentences as is yo or ya or ich. (I hope those are the Spanish and German words for I ... It's been so long since language classes in high school). This is further evidence that "I" was in fact a real person, as a special exception is made in his case that is not shared in any other language.

Knight Templar said:
Khedive Rex said:
All very interesting but I'm not sure sure they're all compatible. For example, how could "I" be both Isaac Newton and Marwood? This will take further investigating.
Well if one were to travle through time they would change their name to avoid suspicion.
I don't know ... The Doctor never changed his name, and he's the first person to come to mind when I think of time travel.

I suppose it is a possibility though...
 

Knight Templar

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Khedive Rex said:
Knight Templar said:
Khedive Rex said:
All very interesting but I'm not sure sure they're all compatible. For example, how could "I" be both Isaac Newton and Marwood? This will take further investigating.
Well if one were to travle through time they would change their name to avoid suspicion.
I don't know ... The Doctor never changed his name, and he's the first person to come to mind when I think of time travel.

I suppose it is a possibility though...
Ah but he often changed his form, why not his name? Also; maybe "I" was very narcissistic and wanted several achievements attributed to his name(s) but couldn't risk being attacked by people thinking him to be a witch.
 

Lonko

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Jun 3, 2009
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The obvious question that arises from all this is:
What was the personal pronoun used before I performed I's mighty deed?

My view is that at some point the Welsh had their minds enslaved by some great and powerful alien known only as I. It was a sort of hivemind deal. As a result of everybody's views reflecting those of I, their ambassadors would inform diplomats what I wanted.
For example: "I wants all your land, you filthy English, and if you refuse to surrender I shall take it by force!" The English thought the ambassadors were talking in the first person, rather than the third. They'd never spoken in the first person before, although they were dimly aware that those of other cultures did it, and assumed that all cultures spoke in the first person all the time. So they decided to steal the word I, and here we are.
 

New Troll

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"I" was and still is the Anti-Christ. Just as God always has to be capitolized, so did I's egotistic self. And with I's influence over mankind, he spread his self-rightousness into all of us. Causing us all to use his name in vain every time we talk about ourselves. And so I's power grows...