You seem very knowledgable in physics, I once heard the amount of energy required to accelerate any mass to the speed of light is equal to all the energy (including mass) available in the universe uncluding whatever you are accelerating. This has been in the back of my head for a while, but now that i think of it how would anyone come to that conclusion at all.cookyy2k said:The closer to the speed of light we go the slower your clock would move to a stationay observer, from your point of view time remains the same and stationary clocks move faster.John the Gamer said:Actually, I saw a documentary once that stated that we are capable of closing on the speed of light, but the closer we go, the slower time moves to compensate, it showed that time travel would be possible by building a train around the world, which would speed up to near lightspeed, and run for 10 years or so. By the time it stops only a week or so would have passed for the people inside, even though they were right there all the time.cookyy2k said:(snip)We cannot produce the forces needed to get near light speed on anything much bigger than a few atoms. (snip)
The same idea applied to black holes; by using a spaceship to circle around the hole in a stable orbit for long enough, time would slow down and the crew would move to the future.
Sadly I can't remember the name, but I think it was on National Geographic.
I wouldn't want to be in the country the train passes through when something goes wrong and it crashes though, an object crashing into the ground at near-lightspeed would blow up the entire continent, or worse I guess.
The main problem with speed of light travel is as I said as speed increases you need a greater force to accelerate you, and the real kicker is acceleration and velocity are nolonger in the exact same direction. you apply an accceleration that then produces a velocity in a different direction.
you see F=dp/dt (F is force, p is momentum, t is time) this is simply Newton's second law.
This equation is invarient. it does not change in different frames.
which is more commonly stated as F=m(dv/dt) (m is mass, v is velocity)
However this only exists in classical mechanics, in relativistic mechanics you need to introduce gamma (calling it g here). giving:
F=m(d(gv)/dt)
which expands to
F=m(v*(dg/dt)+g(dv/dt))
Now g raises very rapidly as you get close to the speed of light, this means the closer you go to this speed the faster and faster g raises which means you need much greater forec to produce any acceleration.
At the speed of light g is infinate meaning that to get anything with mass to the speed of light an infinate accelerating force is required.
Am i entirely wrong there? Maybe im confused and it just the energy required just tends to infinity?