Did you not read my post? I explained the logic. Let me give you another one of my many justifications as to why I am right:Keava said:Since when 48/2(12) is not equal to 48/2*12? What different mathematics they teach in your country? 2*2 is same as (2)(2).InfiniteSingularity said:48/2(12) =/= 48/2x12. The first one is dividing 48 by 2 x 12. The second one is multiplying 48/2 by 12. The first gives an answer of 2. The second gives an answer if 288.
However the question gave us brackets in the denominator - the answer is 2
Again. Let's try to make it simpler to understand the logic.
a=48 b=2 c=9+3
a:bc = a:b*c =/= abc)
Also, keep in mind that division is just multiplication by reverse. a:b = a(1/b) = a * (1/b)
so 48:2(9+3) = 48(1:2)(9+3) = 48*0.5*12 = 288
BODMAS specifies brackets come before anything, right?
2(9+3) is one set of brackets. It is ONE TERM. You solve it ALL AT ONCE. And guess what? It equals 24.
I'm pretty sure we all agree on the simplification up to 48/2(12). Now tell me: Does 48/2(12) equal 48(12)/2? You are moving the 12 from the bottom to the top - you are, quite literally, changing the value of 1/12 into 12/1. You are saying 1/12 = 12. Does it? Because last time I checked it doesn't.
[EDITED typo]