hey guys,
Ive been seeing a situation ,more likely than i would like, where someone states something and then someone else would reply "that's not true that falls under X fallacy!!!". for everyone doing this, stating that an argument falls under X fallacy does not prove the argument incorrect.
For example
person A: "cats and dogs are the same because they both have fur"
person B: "equivalence fallacy"
person A: "how is that a equivalence fallacy"
person B:" well an equivalence fallacy is a logical fallacy which describes a situation where there is a logical and apparent equivalence, but when in fact there is none. This fallacy is categorized as a fallacy of inconsistency"
you see person B is still not explaining why person A's statements are incorrect. all person B did was state a fallacy and explain the definition of that fallacy. at no point in time does person B actually disprove person A's statement. therefore Person A's statement still stands.
correct example
person A: "cats and dogs are the same because they both have fur"
person B: "equivalence fallacy"
person A: "how is that a equivalence fallacy"
person B:" Well cats and dogs are classified under two different animal species, as such they are not the same. QED"
now person B has adequately disproved person A's statements. however a disproof can itself be disproven. example
person A: "cats and dogs are the same because they both have fur"
person B: "equivalence fallacy"
person A: "how is that a equivalence fallacy"
person B:" Well cats and dogs are classified under two different animal species, as such they are not the same. QED"(a well formed disproof)
person A: "contradiction! cats and dogs fall under the same kingdom for species" (person A's disproof to person B's disproof)
person B: "simply because they fall underneath the same kingdom does not mean they fall under the same Genus"(person B's disproof to person A's disproof to person B's disproof)
however just because an argument can fall underneath a logical fallacy does not mean the statement made is itself incorrect.
example:
person A:"yaris's and corolla are the same so they both need gas"
person B:"equivalence fallacy"
person A:"how?"
person B:"the yaris's and corolla are both different kinds of vehicles so they are not the same"
in this example just because the yaris's and corolla are not the same type of vehicles that doesn't mean that the statement was false. it means it conditional on the parameter "same", this is something that comes up a lot in conversation i see. as technically by strict semantics person A's statement is false however once a conditional for same is made person A's statement would be true.
these are just examples yet this can apply to any "logical fallacy" used
TLDR; you cant prove a sentence/statement incorrect by just naming a fallacy, nor does naming a fallacy prove a sentence/statement incorrect. please pass it on.
(i wrote this kinda quick so if anyone notices any miss spellings/grammer please point it out. if i have any math majors in the audience please note its supposed to be general,I didn't proof check my work)
edit: removed the word constantly.
Ive been seeing a situation ,more likely than i would like, where someone states something and then someone else would reply "that's not true that falls under X fallacy!!!". for everyone doing this, stating that an argument falls under X fallacy does not prove the argument incorrect.
For example
person A: "cats and dogs are the same because they both have fur"
person B: "equivalence fallacy"
person A: "how is that a equivalence fallacy"
person B:" well an equivalence fallacy is a logical fallacy which describes a situation where there is a logical and apparent equivalence, but when in fact there is none. This fallacy is categorized as a fallacy of inconsistency"
you see person B is still not explaining why person A's statements are incorrect. all person B did was state a fallacy and explain the definition of that fallacy. at no point in time does person B actually disprove person A's statement. therefore Person A's statement still stands.
correct example
person A: "cats and dogs are the same because they both have fur"
person B: "equivalence fallacy"
person A: "how is that a equivalence fallacy"
person B:" Well cats and dogs are classified under two different animal species, as such they are not the same. QED"
now person B has adequately disproved person A's statements. however a disproof can itself be disproven. example
person A: "cats and dogs are the same because they both have fur"
person B: "equivalence fallacy"
person A: "how is that a equivalence fallacy"
person B:" Well cats and dogs are classified under two different animal species, as such they are not the same. QED"(a well formed disproof)
person A: "contradiction! cats and dogs fall under the same kingdom for species" (person A's disproof to person B's disproof)
person B: "simply because they fall underneath the same kingdom does not mean they fall under the same Genus"(person B's disproof to person A's disproof to person B's disproof)
however just because an argument can fall underneath a logical fallacy does not mean the statement made is itself incorrect.
example:
person A:"yaris's and corolla are the same so they both need gas"
person B:"equivalence fallacy"
person A:"how?"
person B:"the yaris's and corolla are both different kinds of vehicles so they are not the same"
in this example just because the yaris's and corolla are not the same type of vehicles that doesn't mean that the statement was false. it means it conditional on the parameter "same", this is something that comes up a lot in conversation i see. as technically by strict semantics person A's statement is false however once a conditional for same is made person A's statement would be true.
these are just examples yet this can apply to any "logical fallacy" used
TLDR; you cant prove a sentence/statement incorrect by just naming a fallacy, nor does naming a fallacy prove a sentence/statement incorrect. please pass it on.
(i wrote this kinda quick so if anyone notices any miss spellings/grammer please point it out. if i have any math majors in the audience please note its supposed to be general,I didn't proof check my work)
edit: removed the word constantly.