It is possible to not make presumptions. Plenty of things I have no opinion on whatsoever because I know literally nothing about it to have even a starting one. Sure, sometimes I go to see a movie and think 'I will probably like it', and some where I think 'I doubt I will like it, but lets give it a shot'. But then I have also gone into a movie where I had no idea, at all. Not presuming things is possible.
It's possible for many things, but not the legal field, which is based around proof and the burdens behind it. For example, in civil court, if I make a claim about a fact or a matter of law, it must be proved to a certain standard of evidence (a preponderance of the evidence, or simply "more likely than not"). If we have a tie, the tie goes to the other party. The presumption states that if the moving party cannot meet their burden of proof, the non-moving party wins. The alternative presumption is also possible (but a bad idea in my opinion). However, you can't have a system with no way to break a tie. And that rule inherently requires a presumption. You can't say "Party A asserts fact X, and have proven it to be 50% certain. We will therefore proceed with the assumption that fact X is both true and false."
And again, I must stress: The right to be presumed innocent until proven guilty is a human right. A pretty basic one, at that. Even in systems where the judge takes an active role in finding witnesses and questioning them (such as France), the defendant is still entitled to a presumption of innocence. Numerous international treaties confirm this basic fact.
Based on the above, do you wish to keep defending your statement of "The legal system should operate on the goal of justice and truth. Both Innocent until Proven Guilty and Guilty until Proven Innocent are faulty and ultimately bias [sic] things.
There is a third option. 'We don't know, but will work to find out'. Ie making no assumptions at all. "
Or do you perhaps wish to walk it back or admit that it's probably not a good idea to abandon a fundamental principle of human rights?
Uh, evidence is supposed to determine if someone is factually innocent.
That's not how criminal law in the United States works. The prosecution attempts to prove to the court, beyond a reasonable doubt, that the defendant committed the crime. Crime statues, as they are written in the United States, have elements, which basically mean that the defendant did a list of things, and that this combined creates a crime. Let me give you an example, because I spent a lot of time on this, and I think it's a good example of the complexities of the criminal justice system:
Burglary, under the common law definition. (The definition is changed in most states. Consult with a lawyer in your jurisdiction if you have any questions)
At common law, burglary is "the trespassory breaking and entering of the dwelling of another at night with an intent to commit a felony therein." Therefore, to be guilty of burglary, you must:
A: Be committing a trespassory action (without the consent of the homeowner)
B: Break, which is to say, use some amount of physical force to create an entry to the property
C: Actually enter the property
D: Have this property be a dwelling
E: At nighttime
F: With the intent to commit a felony (any felony, at common law) therein
Now let's suppose we live in a state with just the common law. Steve is a criminal and breaks into a house by smashing a window, correctly believing that the owners are away. He steals some jewelry and runs for it. Steve is then arrested for burglary a few days later. At trial, the prosecution proves points A-D beyond a reasonable doubt. However, the prosecution fails to establish elements E and F beyond a reasonable doubt. Say that there's some doubt on whether he had the intent to commit a felony when he broke in, or that it was actually nighttime. The jury has several options here. They can acquit Steve because the prosecutor failed to prove the elements. This would result in a not guilty verdict. But that doesn't mean Steve is factually innocent. There's also the issue of "lesser included offenses" which juries can look at and say "He didn't do the first crime, but he did do the second." Suppose that Crime 1 has elements A B C and D, and Crime 2 has elements A B C. The prosecution proves elements A B and C, but not D. The jury must acquit defendant of Crime 1 but may convict him of Crime 2.
This example is given to show how courts don't deal with innocence, only whether or not the elements are proven. And it's possible for a person to be not guilty of one crime and guilty of another. Steve may not be guilty of common law burgalary, but he is guilty of criminal mischief (breaking a window, element B), grand larceny (theft of the jewelry), and criminal trespass (elements A and C).
That handles the majority of criminal law cases you will ever see. Do you see from this example I've given, based on a case I've witnessed (the exact facts of the crime and the charges were changed to protect the guilty) why courts don't really bother with declaring people innocent? They can only say "Based on the information presented to the court by both parties, we do not have sufficient evidence to conclude guilt for the defendant."
The system is far more unfair to victims of sexual assault and rape than it is to people accused of it.
How do you think it's unfair? The most frequent complaint I see (and I'm not saying that this is specifically your complaint) is the degree to which the defense attorney is allowed to question the alleged victim.
Now, if you're talking about people who bring forward rape accusations being treated poorly by police and prosecutors, by them failing to test kits or follow up on leads, I would agree with you that this is bad.
Really most of your rebuttal has been just a 'Nuh uh'.
I'm trying, as politely as possible, to explain to you (and anyone reading) that your proposal to get rid of the presumption of innocence and replace it with a system with "no presumptions" reads like a example of the Dunning–Kruger effect as applied to the legal field.