Poll: 0.999... = 1

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Jaime_Wolf

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popa_qwerty said:
Jaime_Wolf said:
emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
I'm not saying that there arent other good ideas backing it up to be "true." I'm just saying that this is the same logic that explains how the holocaust started. Someone of authority said something was right, and the people followed.

and dont tell me it has nothing to do with this, because it has everything to do with the reasoning behind as to why some believe its right and others dont.

Also:
Jaime_Wolf said:
popa_qwerty said:
if .9999...=1

now by that logic i can say all numbers are close to infinite

0=.11111...=.22222...=.333333...=.4444444...=.5555555...=.6666666....=.77777777...=.88888888...=.999999999...=.1=1.1111111...
so 0=infinite
and this is not true but by your logic it is

and FYI the number between .99999 and 1 is a number we call i or a imaginary number

1/3≈.33333 not 1/3=3 that is because there is no way to get .333...back to 1/3 you can try you will always fail
You lack the pseudo-science and amateur philosophy of some of the other posters, but the mathematics is cute. I would give it an 8, but the hilarious appeal to i really makes the post.

10.
I'm glad that we can make fun of others in the thread.
How can you possibly say that this is all appeal to authority when people have posted numerous proofs? Unless you've found an error in the proofs that's, well, proof.

Addressing your other concern, this thread is using a well-known, well-studied defect in naive mathematical reasoning to provoke ignorant responses. It is, by any reasonable measure, designed wholly for the sake of making fun of others. I suppose that most of the people are just doing it silently. In that respect, I really am sorry for actually coming out and saying it, which I suppose is a little bit worse since doing it silently doesn't necessarily make anyone feel bad. I mean this sincerely.

As for yourself, the post I quoted earlier had an authoritative and downright preachy tone. Generally, you want to avoid such tones unless you really, really know you're right. And now you're comparing it to the HOLOCAUST? That's just bad taste and makes me feel a little less sorry about before.
come on that post was a joke lets be cool
Oh thank god.

Having read through a good majority of this thread, it becomes REALLY hard to tell which posts are jokes. Still, I give it a 10 for brilliant trolling.
 

Rabid Toilet

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emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
I'm not saying that there arent other good ideas backing it up to be "true." I'm just saying that this is the same logic that explains how the holocaust started. Someone of authority said something was right, and the people followed.

and dont tell me it has nothing to do with this, because it has everything to do with the reasoning behind as to why some believe its right and others dont.
And yet someone in authority said that 2 + 2 = 4, and the people followed.

Why does 2 + 2 = 4? Because they say so.

Using the very laws of mathematics that were invented so long ago by those people, .99... and 1 are the same number.
because 2+2=4 is based on the idea of two.... somethings... apples. Two apples, plus two apples. equals four apples. Its volume, its real, its there.
And yet we have imaginary numbers, we have pi. These aren't real, they aren't there, and yet we accept that they exist, that we can use them, and that they are true.
 

popa_qwerty

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Glademaster said:
havass said:
If x = 0.999999...
Then 10x = 9.9999...
Therefore, 10x - x = 9
Which implies 9x = 9
Thus, x = 1
x also = 0.99999...

In conclusion, I have just proven 1 = 0.9999...
I hate this theorem worse than the making 2=1 through dividing by 0.

OT: Yes technically speaking in maths 0.9999... is equal to one. For more counterintelligence ideas. Since every atom is mostly empty space me, you, your family, the walls around you and everything you have ever known is mostly empty space. Thus everything ever is a waste of space:p.
and this world of empty space is nothing but what we conseve it to be

ps pardon my bad English
 

orangeapples

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emeraldrafael said:
YES! Cause something's missing! What if I lost a toenail? You justs aid that they are different, its just thats tiny. Germs are tiny, do they not exist?
ummm... that's not what I meant. the difference between you and you losing a strand of hair is so small that it pretty much does not exist. you are (1 whole) - (1 strand of hair). The strand of hair is small enough to not make a difference. You are still 1 whole.

in the example you make, the germ is the 1 whole, therefore it (no matter how small) exists.
 

Lyx

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Simple reason to ignore the "proofs" for 0.9999 to equal 1 is this:

The definition of "infinity".

When i to any halfway sane person say "0. and then add an infinite amount of 9's" then by golly, all that will follow WILL be 9's. Infinite times 9 means infinite times 9. Any PHD that claims otherwise can go fuck themselves and die in a corner, for abusing authority to claim that a tautology is false.

How they are "proving" that 0.999... is equal to 1, is be REDEFINING infinity and the rules to handle it. In other words, they keep the words, but change the meaning. That is called cheating.

With this, i do not mean to say that there is no reason for changing the meanings. There may well be - but if you change the meaning, then please also change the words, because else you're quite simply deceiving people.

If for example we hypothetically were to define "@n" to mean "as close as possible to n", then 0.9 associated with the operator @1 would indeed mean "well, here we have 0.9, make that as close as possible to 1", and obviously, the ideal return value would indeed be 1. Which is quite different to saying "infinite times 9". There are other ways to achieve it. I dont care which one they use, its all fine by me, as long as what the symbols mean equals how they are used.

Or we could go the metaphysics route, by questioning if a value can even be infinitely precise, and if there always for practical reasons will be some inaccuracy. That too is okay by me.

But FFS, do not say "infinite times 9", and then do something else.
 

Rabid Toilet

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Lyx said:
Simple reason to ignore the "proofs" for 0.9999 to equal 1 is this:

The definition of "infinity".

When i to any halfway sane person say "0. and then add an infinite amount of 9's" then by golly, all that will follow WILL be 9's. Infinite times 9 means infinite times 9. Any PHD that claims otherwise can go fuck themselves and die in a corner, for abusing authority to claim that a tautology is false.

How they are "proving" that 0.999... is equal to 1, is be REDEFINING infinity and the rules to handle it. In other words, they keep the words, but change the meaning. That is called cheating.

With this, i do not mean to say that there is no reason for changing the meanings. There may well be - but if you change the meaning, then please also change the words, because else you're quite simply deceiving people.

If for example we hypothetically were to define "@n" to mean "as close as possible to n", then 0.9 associated with the operator @1 would indeed mean "well, here we have 0.9, make that as close as possible to 1", and obviously, the ideal return value would indeed be 1. Which is quite different to saying "infinite times 9". There are other ways to achieve it. I dont care which one they use, its all fine by me, as long as what the symbols mean equals how they are used.

Or we could go the metaphysics route, by questioning if a value can even be infinitely precise, and if there always for practical reasons will be some inaccuracy. That too is okay by me.

But FFS, do not say "infinite times 9", and then do something else.
I suppose it's true that the terminology could be confusing people, because if there's nothing but nines, how can it be one?

That doesn't change the fact that an infinite amount of nines means the distance between it and one is infinitely small, which makes them the same number.

Regardless, I've been at this for four hours, and by golly, I'm going to bed!
 

popa_qwerty

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Rabid Toilet said:
emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
I'm not saying that there arent other good ideas backing it up to be "true." I'm just saying that this is the same logic that explains how the holocaust started. Someone of authority said something was right, and the people followed.

and dont tell me it has nothing to do with this, because it has everything to do with the reasoning behind as to why some believe its right and others dont.
And yet someone in authority said that 2 + 2 = 4, and the people followed.

Why does 2 + 2 = 4? Because they say so.

Using the very laws of mathematics that were invented so long ago by those people, .99... and 1 are the same number.
because 2+2=4 is based on the idea of two.... somethings... apples. Two apples, plus two apples. equals four apples. Its volume, its real, its there.
And yet we have imaginary numbers, we have pi. These aren't real, they aren't there, and yet we accept that they exist, that we can use them, and that they are true.
FYI pi is a real number pi is the ratio of the circumference to the radius of the same circle
imaginary numbers are negative square root and do not cross the x intercept i think
 
Nov 24, 2010
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stinkychops said:
BlacklightVirus said:
havass said:
If x = 0.999999...
Then 10x = 9.9999...
Therefore, 10x - x = 9
Which implies 9x = 9
Thus, x = 1
x also = 0.99999...

In conclusion, I have just proven 1 = 0.9999...
I prefer:

b0.b1b2b3b4... = b0 + b1(1/10) + b2(1/10)^2 + b3(1/10)^3 + b4(1/10)^4 ...

if |r| < 1 then kr + kr^2 + kr^3 + ... = kr/(1-r)

So for 0.9...:

0.(9) = 9(1/10) + 9(1/10)^2 + 9(1/10)^3 + ... = (9(1/10))/(1-(1/10)) = 1
Is that inductive proof? I'm having trouble with the formatting.

Regardless this is a well accepted fact and I disagree with the notion that it is counter-intuitive. It simply demonstrates the issues infinity proposes. There have been many threads on this topic, all of which continued on for many many pages where people repeated the same questions and answers. Have fun ;)
Sorry I didn't format it very well :|. I think another member translated it into words earlier.
 

Lukeje

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Feb 6, 2008
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Lyx said:
Simple reason to ignore the "proofs" for 0.9999 to equal 1 is this:

The definition of "infinity".

When i to any halfway sane person say "0. and then add an infinite amount of 9's" then by golly, all that will follow WILL be 9's. Infinite times 9 means infinite times 9. Any PHD that claims otherwise can go fuck themselves and die in a corner, for abusing authority to claim that a tautology is false.

How they are "proving" that 0.999... is equal to 1, is be REDEFINING infinity and the rules to handle it. In other words, they keep the words, but change the meaning. That is called cheating.
No. Your intuitive understanding of infinity is not the general mathematical understanding of infinity. It is you that are redefining infinity to fit your intuitive understanding.
 

Rabid Toilet

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popa_qwerty said:
Rabid Toilet said:
emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
I'm not saying that there arent other good ideas backing it up to be "true." I'm just saying that this is the same logic that explains how the holocaust started. Someone of authority said something was right, and the people followed.

and dont tell me it has nothing to do with this, because it has everything to do with the reasoning behind as to why some believe its right and others dont.
And yet someone in authority said that 2 + 2 = 4, and the people followed.

Why does 2 + 2 = 4? Because they say so.

Using the very laws of mathematics that were invented so long ago by those people, .99... and 1 are the same number.
because 2+2=4 is based on the idea of two.... somethings... apples. Two apples, plus two apples. equals four apples. Its volume, its real, its there.
And yet we have imaginary numbers, we have pi. These aren't real, they aren't there, and yet we accept that they exist, that we can use them, and that they are true.
FYI pi is a real number pi is the ratio of the circumference to the radius of the same circle
imaginary numbers are negative square root and do not cross the x intercept i think
Dammit, alright fine, I'll do one more post, but then I'm going to bed!

Pi is an irrational number, in that it can't be expressed as a fraction. Thus, you can't have pi apples, it's not physically possible. Just like you can't have an infinite number of nines after the decimal place.

Imaginary numbers do not exist, because they do not appear on the number line. Thus, you can't have the square root of -1 apples. Just like you can't have an infinite number of nines after the decimal place.

And yet we accept that these things are real, and we use them as though they are true. That's the comparison I was making.

Now seriously, stop quoting me, I'm leaving.
 

Lukeje

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Feb 6, 2008
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popa_qwerty said:
Rabid Toilet said:
emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
emeraldrafael said:
Rabid Toilet said:
I'm not saying that there arent other good ideas backing it up to be "true." I'm just saying that this is the same logic that explains how the holocaust started. Someone of authority said something was right, and the people followed.

and dont tell me it has nothing to do with this, because it has everything to do with the reasoning behind as to why some believe its right and others dont.
And yet someone in authority said that 2 + 2 = 4, and the people followed.

Why does 2 + 2 = 4? Because they say so.

Using the very laws of mathematics that were invented so long ago by those people, .99... and 1 are the same number.
because 2+2=4 is based on the idea of two.... somethings... apples. Two apples, plus two apples. equals four apples. Its volume, its real, its there.
And yet we have imaginary numbers, we have pi. These aren't real, they aren't there, and yet we accept that they exist, that we can use them, and that they are true.
FYI pi is a real number pi is the ratio of the circumference to the radius of the same circle
imaginary numbers are negative square root and do not cross the x intercept i think
I think they meant them to be separate elements in a list; they weren't implying that pi is imaginary.
 

Lyx

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Lukeje said:
No. Your intuitive understanding of infinity is not the general mathematical understanding of infinity. It is you that are redefining infinity to fit your intuitive understanding.
In that case, i rather trust my "intuitive definition", which is based on actual observation what happens and logical considerations about what our minds CAN mean by saying "infinity", rather than some invented claims without proof (unless one considers an axiom a proof - i don't, and never will).
 

Lukeje

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Feb 6, 2008
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Lyx said:
Lukeje said:
No. Your intuitive understanding of infinity is not the general mathematical understanding of infinity. It is you that are redefining infinity to fit your intuitive understanding.
In that case, i rather trust my "intuitive definition", which is based on actual observation what happens and logical considerations about what our minds CAN mean by saying "infinity", rather than some invented claims without proof (unless one considers an axiom a proof - i don't, and never will).
You've observed infinity?
 

Lyx

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Sep 19, 2010
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Lukeje said:
Lyx said:
Lukeje said:
No. Your intuitive understanding of infinity is not the general mathematical understanding of infinity. It is you that are redefining infinity to fit your intuitive understanding.
In that case, i rather trust my "intuitive definition", which is based on actual observation what happens and logical considerations about what our minds CAN mean by saying "infinity", rather than some invented claims without proof (unless one considers an axiom a proof - i don't, and never will).
You've observed infinity?
I have observed what happens when the concept of infinity is applied :) And that is plain repetition. The "program" doesn't even contain the "instruction" to make the leap which you'd like it to make. Which is why infinity cannot exist - it doesn't ever make any final statement... it just repeats without ever "returning".
 

Jaime_Wolf

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Lyx said:
Simple reason to ignore the "proofs" for 0.9999 to equal 1 is this:

The definition of "infinity".

When i to any halfway sane person say "0. and then add an infinite amount of 9's" then by golly, all that will follow WILL be 9's. Infinite times 9 means infinite times 9. Any PHD that claims otherwise can go fuck themselves and die in a corner, for abusing authority to claim that a tautology is false.

How they are "proving" that 0.999... is equal to 1, is be REDEFINING infinity and the rules to handle it. In other words, they keep the words, but change the meaning. That is called cheating.

With this, i do not mean to say that there is no reason for changing the meanings. There may well be - but if you change the meaning, then please also change the words, because else you're quite simply deceiving people.

If for example we hypothetically were to define "@n" to mean "as close as possible to n", then 0.9 associated with the operator @1 would indeed mean "well, here we have 0.9, make that as close as possible to 1", and obviously, the ideal return value would indeed be 1. Which is quite different to saying "infinite times 9". There are other ways to achieve it. I dont care which one they use, its all fine by me, as long as what the symbols mean equals how they are used.

Or we could go the metaphysics route, by questioning if a value can even be infinitely precise, and if there always for practical reasons will be some inaccuracy. That too is okay by me.

But FFS, do not say "infinite times 9", and then do something else.
But we're talking about the same infinity. We're ALL talking about .999 followed by an infinite number of nines. Some of the proofs require that you correctly extrapolate from that same concept of infinity, but that's not the same as saying that there are different concepts of infinity at work. We have the same basic concept of infinity, many people are just wrong about the ramifications of that concept. It's like asking someone to multiply humongous numbers in their head: there's a very good chance they'll get the wrong answer, but that's not because they're using a different multiplication, they're just making an error in a very difficult computation. Extrapolating from a basic idea of infinity is a very, very difficult computation.

The biggest problem though is that you're trying to characterise .999... as a process: give me the closest number that's less than one, but isn't one.

.999... is a number, not a process. It is, in fact, a number that is equal in value to 1. If you still don't want to believe that a number can have two representations, you should take a look at the link I posted earlier showing independent reasoning about why a number system often assigns two representations to the same real number.

Here's the link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/.999...#Impossibility_of_unique_representation

There are also some problems with your conception of tautology. I cannot for the life of me think of the name of the problem, but the canonical example has to do with the sentence "The Morningstar is the Eveningstar." The example is from Wittgenstein if I remember correctly. If anyone can think of the name, that might be helpful.

Edit: People saying that your intuitive idea of infinity is wrong are...wrong. Your intuitive idea of infinity is the only idea of infinity that exists. The theory of mathematics you have built is, however, flawed in the ways it EXTRAPOLATES from the basic concept you share with virtually everyone. You can pretty handily show that the theory you form from those extrapolations it isn't internally consistent and that the theory used in mathematics is essentially the only logical extension of your basic intuition.
 

BiscuitTrouser

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May 19, 2008
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Sturmdolch said:
Naheal said:
Actually, it didn't :-/ That proof works.
Third last step, at 2a(a-b) = a(a-b). a = b, so dividing by (a-b) is impossible. Yet they still do. So no.

The third last step is still valid, because a-b = 0, so both sides equal 0.

You could just as easily say

532531521215a(a-b) = a(a-b)
532531521215 = 1

which is equally as wrong.


havass said:
If x = 0.999999...
Then 10x = 9.9999...
Therefore, 10x - x = 9
Which implies 9x = 9
Thus, x = 1
x also = 0.99999...

In conclusion, I have just proven 1 = 0.9999...
You're doing it wrong, too. At step 4, 9x = 9, that is not true.

9x = 8.99999999



Edit: I'm not even a math major, but the amount of ignorant false intellectualism in this thread is about to make me cry.
Dont mock these people, this proof is correct. Let me write it differently for you.

EDIT: I see what you did there... your saying x = 1 because 0.999 rec = 1. So 9x SHOULD be 8.999

1/3 = 0.333 recurring. times 0.33 recurring by three. You know have 0.9999 recurring logically. However you have 3/3 if written as a fraction. This shows that 3/3 = 0.999 recuring AND 3/3 also = 1. Therefor 0.999 reccuring must also = 1.

No infinites there, just fractions of an irational nature. These are logical. These work. You cannot tell me that 3/3 does not = 1 but that 1/3 = 0.33333 recuring. These are both true. Leading to the logical conclusion that 0.99999 recurring = 1.

Biosophilogical said:
10x = 9.9999 .... to one less infinite place value
Im sorry did you just say infinite minus 1... Do you have any idea how the infinite works?! Its a concept not a number. You cannot have one less infinite value... that doesnt make any sense. Infinite cannot be edited by any normal functions of math, it is INFINITE nothing you do can make it larger or smaller because it is already of infinite size. Anything smaller than the infinite ISNT the infinite. I think you know what youre talking about but you worded it wrong. Sorry if thats the case, it just reminded me of idiot class mates asking about infinity and going:

"Is infinity plus 1 larger than infinity?"

This irks me.
 

Lyx

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Sep 19, 2010
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@Jaime

I disagree. .999... is a process, not a number. I have never seen anything else, and i cannot even MEAN anything else... this is not just a matter of "imagination".... the value which you claim infinity is, is not constructable in our minds. It also isn't constructable in a machine. In fact, it NOWHERE is constructable.

It does not exist. All that exists is a looped process.
 

smithy_2045

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Jan 30, 2008
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Lyx said:
@Jaime

I disagree. .999... is a process, not a number. I have never seen anything else, and i cannot even MEAN anything else... this is not just a matter of "imagination".... the value which you claim infinity is, is not constructable in our minds. It also isn't constructable in a machine. In fact, it NOWHERE is constructable.

It does not exist. All that exists is a looped process.
Infinity is a concept, not a number, not a process.