This would be why my example was a wedding for overt homophobes who were definitely going to make that homophobia part of their wedding announcement.
To build off tstorm's example, make it a wedding for our alleged successful example of conversion therapy where in the wedding announcement he calls out having been brought forth from his sin of being homosexual by conversion therapy and into the light of God in the holy union of monogamous heterosexual matrimony.
Of course, that wouldn't be an appropriate example either, because any example where the hypothetical LGBTQ+ web designer would find the content seriously objectionable because they are LGBTQ+ is not something either you or TheMysteriousGX is going to be comfortable saying they should be legally forced to write and publish for someone else, just because they write and publish some things for some people.
No, that wouldn't be an appropriate example
because you've added extra criteria to it which substantively change the circumstances. You're equating the following:
1) A hypothetical gay couple asks someone to do some designs for their wedding.
2) A hypothetical "conversion therapy" couple asks someone to do some designs for their wedding,
and dictated that those designs include specific messaging denigrating other demographics.
To be an appropriate example, it would have to be as follows:
1) A hypothetical gay couple asks someone to do some designs for their wedding.
2) A hypothetical "conversion therapy" couple asks someone to do some designs for their wedding.
Boom. Roughly equivalent scenarios. And all that was required was to remove the additional criteria that you had shoehorned in to try and draw equivalence between "denial of service
based on the client's demographic characteristics" (illegal) and "denial of service
based on the requested messaging for the job" (legal).
The reason your example is not appropriate is because you're crafting a scenario that would fall into the latter category, whereas the scenario this case is built around would very much fall into the former category. Those are not the same thing.
I'm within my rights to refuse service to someone on the grounds that I think they're an asshole and don't want to deal with them. Were I so inclined, I would be within my rights to refuse service to them for something as petty as holding a grudge against them from when they stole my lunch money in the first grade, or - more substantively - because they wanted me to present said service as a minstrel show. I'm
not within my rights to refuse service to them because of their sex, ethnicity, nationality, orientation, religion, or disability. So I am not allowed to refuse service because a couple is homosexual, interracial, or interfaith, to use but a few examples.
To put it in different terms: Let's say that you interviewed for a position, and they rejected you because they simply felt another candidate was a better match for their corporate culture. That's entirely reasonable. However, if it turns out that their rationale for that was because of your...I don't know, religion? Your skin color? Or perhaps they just felt that you were a closeted gay, or maybe you said something that made them assume you were HIV positive...you get the idea. In any of those or similar cases, that would instead be a prime example of unlawful discrimination.