kaveradeo said:
How is Z supposed to be pronounced if its not zee?
Edit: above post answered me
"In most dialects of English, the letter's name is zed (play /ˈzɛd/) reflecting its derivation from the Greek zeta but in American English, its name is zee (play /ˈziː/), deriving from a late 17th century English dialectal form."
'Zed' trumps 'zee' for both its widespread usage and acceptance, and also for its accuracy in reflecting its root 'zeta'.
But it doesn't matter. English doesn't belong to anybody. It's a global language and it's living. Most native non-American speakers only get annoyed with Americanisms in English because they feel oppressed by them. They are everywhere, TV, movies, books, but not because of merit or worth but because of economic power.
So "how is 'Z' supposed to be pronounced if not as 'zee'?" is exactly the kind of question that sparks off indignation from many non-Americans. Obviously, 'Z' is pronounced the way that the majority of speakers in a culture agree, which means it's relative.
Yet, this list, despite being lighthearted, is perpetrating the same linguistic absolutism the writers perceive Americans to perpetrate. Half the 'golden rules' and 'standards' in English are the result of compounded errors, misunderstandings, erroneous back-formation and ill-advised aesthetics (really, applying Latin rules to English? Let's apply Chinese ones, shall we?).
Did you know, for example, that 'an apron' was originally 'a napron'? We still use the terms 'napery' and 'napkin'.