I didn't say that all of math was intuitive, I said that all of mathematics finds its base in intuition. Axioms, by definition, exist either to codify intuitions (intuitions that we find basic and inescapable) or to solve paradoxes that arise when those intuitions collide. The sort of austerity you describe is an illusion created by the latter type of axiom: the sort that are required to maintain consistency within the system described. The problem is that when we take our basic intuitions and attempt to form more complex naive theories by extrapolating from them without extreme care, we introduce errors into our computation. Mathematics is, in essence, a way to perform careful extrapolation from our basic intuitions. It's ludicrous to claim any alternative. If mathematics doesn't stem from intuitions, where does it come from? You end up some sort of bizarre Platonist. Intuitions are all you've got. If you're actually interested in these questions, you should look into the philosophical foundations of mathematics and philosophy of science in general. There's some good discussion in the developmental psychology literature regarding acquisition of number theory as well.Coldie said:It exists in math. N-dimensional lattices exist in math, but you can't construct one in your mind. Just because something may be incomprehensible, does not mean it doesn't exist. 0.(9) is a number. Some of its representations are infinite. There are no processes there, they just are.Lyx said:@Jaime
I disagree. .999... is a process, not a number. I have never seen anything else, and i cannot even MEAN anything else... this is not just a matter of "imagination".... the value which you claim infinity is, is not constructable in our minds. It also isn't constructable in a machine. In fact, it NOWHERE is constructable.
It does not exist. All that exists is a looped process.
Math is axiomatic and absolute. If a system or a theory says something works in a certain way, then it just does, within that system. There is no intuition, there is nothing to comprehend, there is only Math and its laws, as defined by the System's Postulates. If you deny an axiom and substitute your own, you create a new system with a new ruleset. If you do it as a part of a proof, the proof is invalid in the original system and therefore irrelevant.
Sufficiently advanced math is indistinguishable from magic.
Careful with the wording: "infinitely close to" can easily be adapted to allow equality. I agree with what you wanted to say however.ultimateownage said:No it's not, but the difference between 0.9*[footnote]the * represents recurring.[/footnote] and 1 is 0.0*1 and since there are infinite 0's then the difference is infinitely small.
Anyone with a basic understanding of maths can tell the difference between equal to and infinitely close to.
I really don't want to read all post and people might have said this, butRawle Lucas said:The odd thing is that your proof is correct.havass said:If x = 0.999999...
Then 10x = 9.9999...
Therefore, 10x - x = 9
Which implies 9x = 9
Thus, x = 1
x also = 0.99999...
In conclusion, I have just proven 1 = 0.9999...
And this is why we have different number sets like rational, irrational and real numbersepninja said:1/3 = .3333...
therefore 3/3 = .9999... = 1
There is no such thing as 'end of infinity'. Please try harder next time, lest the infinity stares back into you.Piflik said:See...perfectly correct and logical...
Why is everyone seeming to argue that this infinity needs to be calculated in real time?Klopy said:Some of the math in this thread is flawed... jeez. Double check, please.
.9999... is not equal to 1.
Why?
Still being in high school, and with my chemistry background, I would have to say that .9 etc. is not equal to 1 because of its significant figures. You can round up when the math is over, but it will never be correct. .9999999 will always be <1, no matter how close it gets. In the math world, this is just how it has to be.
In real life, it would get so close to 1 that it wouldn't really matter.
But in theoretical conversations, it will always be <1.
I know there is no end to infinity...that's why I called it theoretical 'end'Coldie said:There is no such thing as 'end of infinity'. Please try harder next time, lest the infinity stares back into you.Piflik said:See...perfectly correct and logical...
There's no theoretical end to infinity, either. Infinity is infinite, it has no end. At all. It might have a beginning, but never an end. It might be countable or uncountable, but it never, ever ends. Ever.Piflik said:I know there is no end to infinity...that's why I called it theoretical 'end'
Jaime_Wolf said:Then you disagree with the question, not the result (since the answer of an incoherent question cannot be true or false). Assuming you take the view that this is an erroneous question, you should probably realize that you are, in the end, arguing that all real numbers are only processes (Values having multiple representations stems from the nature of constructing representations of real numbers. So you can, for any real number, create a number system that forces you to conclude that the values are processes). As soon as you take such a view, you either have to abandon a notion of equality altogether or you have to say that they're equal. So nothing is really ever gained.
It isn't equivalent to zero. That was my point, infinity is the concept of "as close as you can get without being it"... Kinda. 1x10^(-infinity) would equal 0.(an infinite number of zero's)1.smithy_2045 said:Which is equivalent to zero. Which means there is no difference. Which means .999... = 1brunothepig said:No, no no no. The problem with that proof is the whole infinity thing. Infinity is just a concept. Basically, 10x0.999.. should equal 9.999..8havass said:If x = 0.999999...
Then 10x = 9.9999...
Therefore, 10x - x = 9
Which implies 9x = 9
Thus, x = 1
x also = 0.99999...
In conclusion, I have just proven 1 = 0.9999...
Because infinity is supposed to be, well, forever, the 8 is kinda ignored in that proof, but it should be on the end of that never ending number. You see why it's a problem?
OT: I think my stance on this is rather obvious. 0.9 recurring doesn't equal 1. It is in fact, 1x10^(-infinity) less.
popa_qwerty said:and this world of empty space is nothing but what we conseve it to be;;psGlademaster said:I hate this theorem worse than the making 2=1 through dividing by 0.havass said:If x = 0.999999...
Then 10x = 9.9999...
Therefore, 10x - x = 9
Which implies 9x = 9
Thus, x = 1
x also = 0.99999...
In conclusion, I have just proven 1 = 0.9999...
OT: Yes technically speaking in maths 0.9999... is equal to one. For more counterintelligence ideas. Since every atom is mostly empty space me, you, your family, the walls around you and everything you have ever known is mostly empty space. Thus everything ever is a waste of space.
pardon my bad English[/quoteMeh
Meh it's fine. Only 1 word spelt wrong. Although it is funny how we never actually touch thigns either on an atomic level.
That's not maths! That's mystical, magical witchcraft! Burn the witch!BlacklightVirus said:I prefer:havass said:If x = 0.999999...
Then 10x = 9.9999...
Therefore, 10x - x = 9
Which implies 9x = 9
Thus, x = 1
x also = 0.99999...
In conclusion, I have just proven 1 = 0.9999...
b0.b1b2b3b4... = b0 + b1(1/10) + b2(1/10)^2 + b3(1/10)^3 + b4(1/10)^4 ...
if |r| < 1 then kr + kr^2 + kr^3 + ... = kr/(1-r)
So for 0.9...:
0.(9) = 9(1/10) + 9(1/10)^2 + 9(1/10)^3 + ... = (9(1/10))/(1-(1/10)) = 1