This may have been explained already, but what happens when/if Sharia law conflicts with what I take to be true, that these arbitration courts cannot rule over criminal law? Will both courts, depending on the severity, simply pretend not to notice? Will there be some hashing out of what decision goes where (or has this already been done)?
For example, in the case of spousal abuse: will this be considered a criminal act or a private case to be worked out? Are there grey areas that could lead to frayed tensions between these two different streams of law?
Dang, that's a lot of questions.
For example, in the case of spousal abuse: will this be considered a criminal act or a private case to be worked out? Are there grey areas that could lead to frayed tensions between these two different streams of law?
Dang, that's a lot of questions.