RebelRising said:
ravensheart18 said:
RebelRising said:
Now, as it stands, God is the seemingly benign dictator who hands out harsh sentences for every person who so much as nibbles on shrimp or doesn't sell off his daughter into slavery.
That's a very odd belief, I'm amazed how ill informed people are about religion and yet they choose to comment on it like they know something.
Christians don't, by and large, follow what the books of Moses so they aren't relivent to a conversation on the devil. Looking at it from a Jewish standpoint, you don't understand the law or text based on your comments. Nibbling on shrimp will not get you severe punishment. It's an important violation of the law, but a nibble of strimp will not do you in. As for selling a daughter into slavery, that's a christian mistranslation. The section of text is talking about the payments that often accompanied marriage arrangements and it included property and money in both directions. The laws you are talking about were actually put in place to protect the bride, but you need to read them in context and either in hebrew or correctly translated to understand this.
True, but it also interests me as to how you looked past the facetiousness of my post and tried to look for something serious. But, since you want to play this game...
Exodus 21:7-11 And if a man sells his daughter as a servant, she shall not go out as the male servants do. If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter. If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. If he does not provide her with these three things, she is to go free, without any payment of money.
Certain translations differ from "servant" to "slave", but I guess we can all chalk that up to "reading them in context", given the very forward thinking culture of the Hebrews at that time. For future note, I was not calling attention to the fact that she may or may not have been mistreated as a slave, but rather that
her own father sold her into slavery. That's all I have to say on the matter. Good day to you, sir.
You want to play the quote game? Ok, fine...
7 And if a man sell his daughter to be a maid-servant, she shall not go out as the men-servants do. 8 If she please not her master, who hath espoused her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed; to sell her unto a foreign people he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her. 9 And if he espouse her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters. 10 If he take him another wife, her food, her raiment, and her conjugal rights, shall he not diminish. 11 And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out for nothing, without money.
The problem is that hebrew there doesn't translate well into english (no direct translation). Now when I talk about reading in context, note that this is basically a marriage transaction, not a slave transaction. 8 shows the primary purose is marriage to the man, 9 gives the option of marriage to the son of the man, 10 says that if he "takes another wife", reinforcing that this was a marriage arrangment. Your confusion comes from the fact that you might not realize that such arrangements were often made early in a girl's life and she would then do maidlike duties (same chores she would have had at home) until she was ready to wed. Years could pass between the arrangement and the marriage. The primary purpose of this section is to ensure girls are NOT treated as slaves, as they often were in the time, 8, 9,10, 11 all contain wording to protect and empower the rights of the girl.
Edit: Grr...this board won't accept hebrew text... http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt0221.htm if you want to see the hebrew to english.
