The French speak French, the Spanish speak Spanish, The English speak?

Fetzenfisch

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ZombieGenesis said:
tigermilk said:
ZombieGenesis said:
"British English"...? I've never even HEARD that before.
It's just English, that's all it's ever been. There's the 'Americanization' of English, which basically just means switching a few words and making all the 'U's sound like 'A's.
And replacing "s" with "z" as in Americanization as opposed to Americanisation!

I too had never heard of "British English" I guess as I am English. Can't help but think there are a lot of Irish people who would be very pissed off at the phrase "British English".
My terrible grammar habits are irrelevant, kind sir.

And you know...the Welsh? Since they don't speak English anyway.
They speak Welsh.

So yeah... 'British'.
dont pull the celtic in your little "british" problem. Welsh, gaelic and irish have near to nothing to do with that.
While english as a comparably young language, mixed up from several scandinavian,germanic and latin languages still got a ton of varieties, the celtic languages have pretty much settled in their forms.
But the colonies have indeed evolved theit own ways, you imediately can tell if someone is speaking AE (american english) RP (formal british english) or AUstralian, but instead of matters of isolation, like it was with the celtic languages over centuries, the differences in english just originate in the difference in ethnic groups that majorly inhabited the island/continents. Thats btw why american engish is easier in when it comes to "pronounclike you spell" because of the lot of scandinavian and german settlers. While british english lost a lot of these features over time, while old english is pretty much the same as old german, as you can still see in a lot of english vocabulary. e.g., yesterday=gysterndag=gestern-tag.
 

thejackyl

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I entered this topic expecting some sort of "SPEAK OUR LANGUAGE IF YOUR LIVE HERE" topic, and was prepared to give my response to that... However I will refrain from that until that is the topic of choice :p

Too me, English = English

Pretty much the same language with exception to the slang, from what I've experienced. Though if this comes up in conversation ("What language do you speak?") I tend to say "American" half-jokingly
 

hilarius117

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Spanish has 3 major dialects that I have come across while studying Spanish. Argentina, Spain, and Mexico.
Some words take completely different meanings.
The word "coger"
In spain, it simply means to take. in South America, however, it means to f**k. It is vulgar.
Also, there are a lot of minor differences in accents, word use, and even spelling.

Another variant is Portuguese, which is an entirely different language, yet has stunning similarities in its make up.
-Even French has similar make up, and similar words, but it is an entirely different language. I found French easy after taking Spanish because of all the subtle similarities.
The thing is, they both come from similar backgrounds, I.E. Latin, which is also easy if you have a romance language in your background.

Sorry, I'm an amateur linguist and love language rants.
EDIT

Kinda missed the topic. With what i said in mind. Language is determined by what courty makes it. Yet when a count declares/has declared independence, thy adopt their own language. America (North and South) is far to young to have its own languages like the Spanish or Italians or even English/British. The language retains its name from the country of origin. As globalization continues, i think countries may start claming languages, i.e. America, Mexican, Quebequois (i spelled that wrong, didnt I)

Also, it is a cultural question. This is only a theory, the Portugues gained independence from their neighbor, Spain. Therefore they wanted to be distinct from a culture that was so close and so prevelent because of geography. Yet Mexico has its own culture, the Native American culture from the Mayans, Incans and more. The language is only a tool to comunicate and less of an object of cultural distinction.
 

The Random One

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Pilkingtube said:
Does this also happen for [..] Brazilians who call the Portuguese version of Portuguese 'Iberian Portuguese'
The usual term is 'português de Portugal' which would translate as 'Portugal Portuguese', but yeah, pretty much.
 

michael87cn

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Phoxinator said:
It's Americans calling it British English because they think 'English' is their own language. You won't see anyone in England calling it British English or American English because we're too polite.
Hiyo there! American here, I have 24 years of life to attest to never seeing ANYONE say "British English". We just say English. Rednecks might say "American".

It doesn't really matter...
 

ENKC

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Here in Australia we do on occassion use the term 'Australian English', but usually in reference to our cultural idioms and slang, as we do not generally deviate from 'British' English where grammar and spelling are concerned.

Those too quick to label American English as an aberration should however be aware that for most of history (certainly prior to the existence of dictionaries), many alternate spellings of words were accepted as there was little in the way of standardisation. Were one to read an original folio of Shakespeare's work, they'd be hard pressed to follow it with all the differences from 'modern' spelling - let alone syntax.

American English differs from modern British usage today not necessarily from 'bastardisation' of the language, but at least partly from having developed from an earlier offshoot at the time of colonisation. Hence in some cases American spellings are actually closer to the English used in Britain centuries ago than modern British English is.
 

EscapingReality

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Wolfenbarg said:
As for the point, I don't think most people even make a distinction. Dialects change a few things, but that's true with all big languages. Look at the differences in Spanish between North and South America compared to Spain.
Ditto. Spanish is a language that is constantly evolving and varies greatly when it comes to Latin America. The syntax is the same but a lot of the words and sayings vary greatly. They can even vary from region to region of the same country. Case in point: Mexico.

A loaf of bread is called:
-Central Mexico (Mexico City, Morelos, Hidalgo, Queretaro): Bolillo
-Northern Mexico (Monterrey, Saltillo, Ensenada, Los Cabos): Birote
-Eastern Mexico (Guadalajara, Tepic, Colima): Capirote
 

hilarius117

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agreed. Look at the word "sure"
You pronounce that word "shur" right? They were back in the olden days when dictionaries were being writen, two words from two dialects.
"sure" was spoken as it looks yet when they made the dictionary, they stuck the "shur" pronounciation with it. kinda crazy
 

Saelune

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Weeell, Mexicans speak spanish, Chinese speak mostly Mandarin (no language called "chinese")
So its not like thats unique.
 

iamthe1

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If it's a matter of colloquialisms or some other type of idiom, then I can see why people make the distinction. I don't know what the fuck a "billabong" is, but I'm made to understand that it's a word of Aussie origin. I've seen it emblazoned on the hoodies of useless twats riding skateboards, so it probably means something totally distinct in many American idioms (that I have no desire to learn).

However, if it's a matter of "proper English grammar," then fucking ignore it. Only fuckheads who have had one-too-many English teachers slap them across the face for saying "who" when they *should* have said "whom" care about that shit. Yahtzee, I'm looking at you, you pretentious throbbing cock--or was your schoolmarm so hot that it was worth it? 'Cause there's no judgement here!

There are no required affixes for case agreement, there are no true disagreements in number from subject to predicate, and who the fuck cares if I say "data" in lieu of "datum'????? It makes no difference unless you're writing for an audience who gives a shit. If you're in an academic setting, and people are going to judge you not only on how well you present your bullshit but also on how well you grammaticize your bullshit, then fucking work on your ethos!

But most people just won't care. And for good reason. Seriously: if I knock on your door, and you ask who it is, I will answer "It's me." Even though it's the predicate nominative, and I *should* say "It's I." Cock-a-doodle-doo. Just worry about communicating your point. If *proper* grammar is relevant to that end, use it. Otherwise, fuck it.

Holy shit, I really am drunk! Sorry for that! I usually don't pretend like I care that much... maybe I really do care...

RUBBISH!
 

iamthe1

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Fuck, I spent so much time on English, I forgot to rant about other languages!

My friend Cy, who learned Spanish in America, spoke Spanish to my friend Roy, who learned Spanish in Central America. For a minute they looked at each other like "What the fuck are you on about?" But then they got used to the dialects, and lo and behold it wasn't a problem. They're better friends than I am with either of them individually.

I can go on about German, but then I'll really rant. Suffice to say, every language does this. You have "Hi" and "Low" forms of the language. But if two people are just having a frank discussion, then IT MAKES NO FUCKING DIFFERENCE. I know what you're saying. We're done. That's it. Achievement unlocked. Hooray!

God, I need more vodka...
 

Starke

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yak_face said:
To answer your first question, yes.

If, like me, you come from the American South West and have learned Spanish there you will have a very interesting time trying to communicate with someone speaking Spanish in the way it is spoken in Spain (typically called Castelian Spanish, by the way.)

I don't speak French, but I have a Haitian friend who does...unless you ask a French person, at which point he sure as hell isn't speaking "proper" French.

American English and British English are the same way. Which one is considered odd is a matter of cultural relativism.
There's also Portuguese, which has it's own split like that between Portugal and South America. And every time I've ever asked a native Spanish speaker about the Mexican variant of Spanish, I've gotten the response that "they talk weird," or that "Mexican Spanish is weird". Finally I can say from personal experience that the Swiss, Austrians and Germans all speak, basically German, but as someone who was learning the language, the Swiss version threw me for a hell of a loop.

Finally Portuguese and Spanish are, I'm told, much closer to being the same language with distinctly different pronunciations than modern Portuguese like to admit.
 

TheRealCJ

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masher said:
The U.S. still hasn't changed over to the metric system.

I'll just leave that here.

We can be a stubborn people, unfortunately, and we appear to strongly value our, "Individuality," as a nation, which can be ironic in some cases.
Tea party protestors have proven that to most of the world.
 

lockeslylcrit

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Trildor said:
lockeslylcrit said:
Pilkingtube said:
Hey so i'm wondering after seeing a few comments from US citizens on this site about English grammar. When a person is Spanish and they speak Spanish, their language is called Spanish. When the Japanese speak Japanese, it is called Japanese. When the English speak English, it is called British English rather than English.
Please don't confuse a dialect with an entirely different language. There are many variations of English (Canadian, American, British, etc), just as there are many variations of Spanish (Mayan, Latin, etc). If you want to get technical, there are also pidgin and creole languages.
Sorry for being a pedant, but there's no such thing as Mayan or Latin Spanish.
By "Latin" I mean "Latin American", aka the dominant Spanish spoken in North and South America. It's a different dialect than the Spanish spoken in Spain.
As for Mayan Spanish, It's quite apparent you've never been to the Yucatan Peninsula before. Mayan is mixed in with Spanish as a form of a creole, and quite a few native Mexicans in the Peninsula speak a variation of both Mayan and Spanish. If you speak "pure" Spanish to someone who speaks Mayan Spanish, it is as if you were speaking English to an English speaker on the Ivory Coast. The dialect is worlds different, and almost unintelligible. Mayan is indeed alive and well as a creole in Mexico.
 

drisky

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Other languages do it to, my friend speaks Taiwanese Mandarin. English isn't the only language with dialect.
 

dogenzakaminion

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...Americans speak British English? I've always learned that it's American English and British English for Americans and Brits respectively. Hell, it's all English anyway, the differences are hardly worth a specific designation. More like a dialect of English.
 

CrystalShadow

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Therumancer said:
Pilkingtube said:
Hey so i'm wondering after seeing a few comments from US citizens on this site about English grammar. When a person is Spanish and they speak Spanish, their language is called Spanish. When the Japanese speak Japanese, it is called Japanese. When the English speak English, it is called British English rather than English.

Does this also happen for French Canadians, who call the French version of French 'European French' and Brazilians who call the Portuguese version of Portuguese 'Iberian Portuguese' or is it just the US citizenship who modify the name of the original language If so, why?

I am curious because the majority of Australians, Indians and New Zealanders, who speak English too, don't seem to categorise English into 'British English' and 'Indian English' as much, despite the differences being clear and defined (Such as in India where English isn't really a well established language as most people speak primarily Hindi I believe).

Also, on a less serious/curious note.. what is the reasoning behind the unsual order of the American Date System? The progression is usually in ascending/descending order, such as seconds>minutes>hours>days>months>years or years>months>days>hours>minutes>seconds but whenever it is written on an American document it flows seconds>minutes>hours>months>days>years, why is it in such an unintuitive layout?
When it comes to the date system it has to do with efficiency compared to nations that are more mired in tradition.

The bottom line is that when your filing things the older files are usually moved out and archived. Typically you have the year on the drawer or box, and then when you flip through them the first thing you see is the month, once you have the month you can narrow it down to the day, the year is the furthest over since it's the least relevent and only really useful for determining what box/drawer it goes in if it gets misplaced or misfiled.

Putting the year first would be counter productive since by looking at the files to begin with you already know that. The day is pointless before you know what month it is.

Especially when dealing with the "Old World" (Europe) it's kind of funny how the rivalry works. The bottom line is that while similar, things in Europe work they way they do mostly because of tradition. It worked then, it will work now, and it's a pain to teach someone a new system for an efficiency increase when the old one has worked just as well. The US on the other hand broke free of a lot of the trappings of European bureaucracy and defined things on it's own depending on what worked the best. Being only 200 years old we haven't yet run into a group of "young turks" with better ways than us, so we can be the stodgy old codgers.

Of course a lot of things like the order of dates becomes semantics with electronic filing systems. When your not thinking in terms of physical record keeping and archives it's easy to go "WTF" when you just see the date organized on a computer screen.

I incidently know the specifics of WHY things work like this because I've spent a lot of time writing and filing reports, and digging around to find paperwork. Honestly, it doesn't surprise me there are so many jokes about the speed and efficiency of european bureaucracy because it would probably take me twice as long under that system.

-

When it comes to language, it largely comes down to the US being a melting pot nation with a somewhat unique style of cultural identity. We don't feel the name to differntiate ourselves to quite that degree, where language is a matter of cultural pride for a lot of other nations. Our complaint about immigrants not learning the language has more to do with efficiency and adaption than any paticular connect between language and culture, and of course that's one of the problems with getting people to adapt in many cases, since a lot of them don't really want to become Americans so much as maintain their own culture, live seperatly from our society for all intents and purposes, and draw the benefits of being US citizens. That however gets into another entire disucission

The British will specify "British English" largely as a method of diffentiating themselves from the US and asserting a cultural identity, where Americans will rarely say "American English" since we really don't care, and are using the name of England (which we broke away from) to begin with).


As far as the international usage of English, that comes from the US being the dominant world power and also the biggest positive cultural force the planet has ever seen, like it or not. As many people will point out the US might not be a conquering empire in a traditional sense, but we have none the less conquered the world with things like "Starbucks", "The Big Mac", and "Melrose Place" like noone before us. Thus we and our basic usage of the language's name have defined what people call it. On top of this our style of superpowerdom has made English the default language of business, and catapulted it into a league of it's own internationally. Even when no Americans or members of the UK are involved during business meetings it's not uncommon for everyone to switch to english as the default language that will be used by everyone, and also the language the contract will be written in even if
none of the people involved are native english speakers. It's funny that this is mentioned right alongside the bit about dates, which lead to discussions of paperwork, because one complaint I've run into is how English is almost like what Latin used to be in some countries where they vehemently hold onto their language for cultural reasons, but at the same time require all their official documents and business records to be in english. Thus like scholors or the religious had to learn latin (to read the bible and recite prayers, and read documents and books in universities), a clerk frequently has to know english fairly well even if they don't use it for anything other than the paperwork, especially if the business is operating internationally. It's the "middle ground" language.

Interestingly, I think one thing that we're eventually going to see happen despite great opposition is English becoming a mandatory language for the planet. People will still have cultural tongues, but as a secondary thing. Simply because it will help efficiency in communications and the spread of ideas, and also because so much of the world is already using if only for administrative purposes.
While I don't doubt that America has a lot to do with why everyone else uses the language, pretty much every country that has English as an 'official' language is a former British colony.

(Off the top of my head: Canada, Australia, India, Jamaica, Australia, New Zealand, Singapore & Hong Kong - South Africa is interesting in that Africaans is clearly a dialect of Dutch, but English is also spoken for the same reasons as the others)

And of course, in practice, the US itself. (Although many different countries laid claim to parts of America, the British ended up owning most of it somehow, but then you guys declared independence.
By contrast, a lot of the other mentioned countries became independent a lot more recently, and most are still members of the 'commonwealth', which is essentially saying they're now independent, but technically still subject to some symbolic level of British rule. (By the Monarchy, usually.)
 

manaman

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Therumancer said:
Pilkingtube said:
Hey so i'm wondering after seeing a few comments from US citizens on this site about English grammar. When a person is Spanish and they speak Spanish, their language is called Spanish. When the Japanese speak Japanese, it is called Japanese. When the English speak English, it is called British English rather than English.

Does this also happen for French Canadians, who call the French version of French 'European French' and Brazilians who call the Portuguese version of Portuguese 'Iberian Portuguese' or is it just the US citizenship who modify the name of the original language If so, why?

I am curious because the majority of Australians, Indians and New Zealanders, who speak English too, don't seem to categorise English into 'British English' and 'Indian English' as much, despite the differences being clear and defined (Such as in India where English isn't really a well established language as most people speak primarily Hindi I believe).

Also, on a less serious/curious note.. what is the reasoning behind the unsual order of the American Date System? The progression is usually in ascending/descending order, such as seconds>minutes>hours>days>months>years or years>months>days>hours>minutes>seconds but whenever it is written on an American document it flows seconds>minutes>hours>months>days>years, why is it in such an unintuitive layout?
When it comes to the date system it has to do with efficiency compared to nations that are more mired in tradition.

The bottom line is that when your filing things the older files are usually moved out and archived. Typically you have the year on the drawer or box, and then when you flip through them the first thing you see is the month, once you have the month you can narrow it down to the day, the year is the furthest over since it's the least relevent and only really useful for determining what box/drawer it goes in if it gets misplaced or misfiled.

Putting the year first would be counter productive since by looking at the files to begin with you already know that. The day is pointless before you know what month it is.

Especially when dealing with the "Old World" (Europe) it's kind of funny how the rivalry works. The bottom line is that while similar, things in Europe work they way they do mostly because of tradition. It worked then, it will work now, and it's a pain to teach someone a new system for an efficiency increase when the old one has worked just as well. The US on the other hand broke free of a lot of the trappings of European bureaucracy and defined things on it's own depending on what worked the best. Being only 200 years old we haven't yet run into a group of "young turks" with better ways than us, so we can be the stodgy old codgers.

Of course a lot of things like the order of dates becomes semantics with electronic filing systems. When your not thinking in terms of physical record keeping and archives it's easy to go "WTF" when you just see the date organized on a computer screen.

I incidently know the specifics of WHY things work like this because I've spent a lot of time writing and filing reports, and digging around to find paperwork. Honestly, it doesn't surprise me there are so many jokes about the speed and efficiency of european bureaucracy because it would probably take me twice as long under that system.

-

When it comes to language, it largely comes down to the US being a melting pot nation with a somewhat unique style of cultural identity. We don't feel the name to differntiate ourselves to quite that degree, where language is a matter of cultural pride for a lot of other nations. Our complaint about immigrants not learning the language has more to do with efficiency and adaption than any paticular connect between language and culture, and of course that's one of the problems with getting people to adapt in many cases, since a lot of them don't really want to become Americans so much as maintain their own culture, live seperatly from our society for all intents and purposes, and draw the benefits of being US citizens. That however gets into another entire disucission

The British will specify "British English" largely as a method of diffentiating themselves from the US and asserting a cultural identity, where Americans will rarely say "American English" since we really don't care, and are using the name of England (which we broke away from) to begin with).


As far as the international usage of English, that comes from the US being the dominant world power and also the biggest positive cultural force the planet has ever seen, like it or not. As many people will point out the US might not be a conquering empire in a traditional sense, but we have none the less conquered the world with things like "Starbucks", "The Big Mac", and "Melrose Place" like noone before us. Thus we and our basic usage of the language's name have defined what people call it. On top of this our style of superpowerdom has made English the default language of business, and catapulted it into a league of it's own internationally. Even when no Americans or members of the UK are involved during business meetings it's not uncommon for everyone to switch to english as the default language that will be used by everyone, and also the language the contract will be written in even if
none of the people involved are native english speakers. It's funny that this is mentioned right alongside the bit about dates, which lead to discussions of paperwork, because one complaint I've run into is how English is almost like what Latin used to be in some countries where they vehemently hold onto their language for cultural reasons, but at the same time require all their official documents and business records to be in english. Thus like scholors or the religious had to learn latin (to read the bible and recite prayers, and read documents and books in universities), a clerk frequently has to know english fairly well even if they don't use it for anything other than the paperwork, especially if the business is operating internationally. It's the "middle ground" language.

Interestingly, I think one thing that we're eventually going to see happen despite great opposition is English becoming a mandatory language for the planet. People will still have cultural tongues, but as a secondary thing. Simply because it will help efficiency in communications and the spread of ideas, and also because so much of the world is already using if only for administrative purposes.
Probably not. Power will likely wane a bit from the US before the world decides it really needs to teach one language. Since a full 60% of the native English speaking world resides within the US you probably won't see English as the unifying language. All it will take is one generation without the vast presence of the US for the language to fall out of favor as the most popular second language.

As for the rest, well the systems might make sense for some things, but it isn't that way because its efficient. It's that way because change hasn't happened as quickly in the US. English as spoken and written in the US is far closer to how the language was 200 years ago. It's the English more then the US that have changed, reason for it aside its verifiable.

Phoxinator said:
It's Americans calling it British English because they think 'English' is their own language. You won't see anyone in England calling it British English or American English because we're too polite.
Well that is now the biggest piece of bullshit I have read today. Before your statement it was the head of the AFL-CIO comparing the pro union moment with the black rights moment and scheduling a speech for the anniversary of King's assassination.

I hear American English pretty much as often as I hear a brit laying claim for hundreds of years of evolution of a language. As if the people alive now had crafted the language themselves. Go back 300 years and you would have more trouble understanding people the you do anyone from the US. All that is aside from the fact that a full 60% of the native English speakers are US citizens. We not only out numeric you, we outnumber everyone you know as well.
 

SFR

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iamthe1 said:
If it's a matter of colloquialisms or some other type of idiom, then I can see why people make the distinction. I don't know what the fuck a "billabong" is, but I'm made to understand that it's a word of Aussie origin. I've seen it emblazoned on the hoodies of useless twats riding skateboards, so it probably means something totally distinct in many American idioms (that I have no desire to learn).

However, if it's a matter of "proper English grammar," then fucking ignore it. Only fuckheads who have had one-too-many English teachers slap them across the face for saying "who" when they *should* have said "whom" care about that shit. Yahtzee, I'm looking at you, you pretentious throbbing cock--or was your schoolmarm so hot that it was worth it? 'Cause there's no judgement here!

There are no required affixes for case agreement, there are no true disagreements in number from subject to predicate, and who the fuck cares if I say "data" in lieu of "datum'????? It makes no difference unless you're writing for an audience who gives a shit. If you're in an academic setting, and people are going to judge you not only on how well you present your bullshit but also on how well you grammaticize your bullshit, then fucking work on your ethos!

But most people just won't care. And for good reason. Seriously: if I knock on your door, and you ask who it is, I will answer "It's me." Even though it's the predicate nominative, and I *should* say "It's I." Cock-a-doodle-doo. Just worry about communicating your point. If *proper* grammar is relevant to that end, use it. Otherwise, fuck it.

Holy shit, I really am drunk! Sorry for that! I usually don't pretend like I care that much... maybe I really do care...

RUBBISH!
You are quite eloquent for being drunk. Also, I'm American and have no idea what billabong means. Apparently neither does Firefox, as that shit be underlined in red, yo.