Axolotl said:
And? I really don't see you're point here, Caucasian is a term that refers to the race generally inhabiting Europe, the Middle East and North Africa. The Romans certainly fall under that category.
No, Caucasian is a term that refers to the descendents of tribes from the Caucus area of Europe, which is between the Black and Caspian seas (the border between Russia and Europe). The more general form, "White," refers to anyone of pale skin color - usually implied to mean anyone that's descended from Celts, Germanics, and Francs.
To some extent all ethnic terms centered around biological variations are hard to define. Especially in recent centuries, humans have interbred like mad, and overall we're not really that diverse a species.
However, if you can find 5 other people who think that Egyptians or Iranians are Caucasians, I'm willing to cede this point.
The Romans were also a different Haplotype than the Celts, Nords, and Germanics.
Could you elaborate on this?
Haplotypes/Haplogroups are based on Y-DNA mutations inherited from Mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondrial DNA is only passed matrolinealy - from the mother to all of her offspring, never from the father, and without any recombination events. It is basically a straight shot back through history, and any mutations in Mitochondrial DNA will be present in ALL of the descendents of the woman whose DNA first mutated. So if 95% of Scotsman have a single mutation that nobody else has, it means one woman originated 95% of the Scottish people.
Because mutations generally don't hit the same spot twice, as mutations accumulate, you can compare the genetic code between anyone and get a good sense of which "edition" is more recent.
The Haplotype for almost all of Europe is R1b, and the Romans - who were Mediterranean - were a different Haplotype.
This pretty much implies that all of Europe was inhabited by people descended from one tribe/mother/originator, and then the Romans - who were the descendents of a different tribe/mother/originator - conquered them, which is why you see Greece/Italy at about 25% R1b density (as opposed to 75%+ density in the rest of Europe).
Short version: Genetic analysis reveals that the Celts/Francs/Germanic tribes were pretty much all descendents of a line carrying the R1b genetic mutation. The Greeks/Romans/Middle Eastern civilizations carried a different mutation, and at places where the two cultures mixed (usually due to one conquering the other), there is more of a mixture in the population (but never in an individual, since they are inherited only from the mother and do not recombine or otherwise interact with other genes).
Also, the Romans weren't white (German|Historically Accurate Mediterranean):
Both those people are white, they both have white skin. I really don't see how you would argue that the Roman in the picture wasn't white.
So the blonde-haired, fair-skinned guy that's going to sunburn in about 30 minutes on a hot day looks pretty much the same as the black-haired, mocha-skinned guy who's just going to get darker in the sun?
One has multiple times the melanin production of the other. Unless your definition of "White" is "Not black", they are different.
Seriously look at the paintings they left, they show white people in them.
I'm not a proper Art Historian, and with something like the paintings you mention it's important to be more knowledgable than I am. I do not know how paint or stuccor wears over several millenia, and I do not know enough about Roman religion/beliefs to state whether pale skin was an ideal that wealthy families wanted to be represented in paintings.
I do know that not all Roman paintings showed white people, a lot show mocha-skinned people with black, curly hair. Pretty much how Mediterraneans looked at the time:
I also know that, without a firm time period of the paintings you're talking about, it's hard to say if there had been any interbreeding with Celtic/Germanic/Franc populations - which would have reduced the melanin in the skin of those families.