BGH122 said:
You don't understand what a no true scotsman fallacy is.
I certainly am. If you feel that it has been misrepresented, a better approach would be to say, "Could you clarify, because to me it sounds like you're saying..." as opposed to simply
telling someone else what they do or do not understand. I'll assume you're requesting clarification and proceed from there -- the above is just sort of a friendly tip for civil discussion.
It isn't a case of two different debaters having a different fundamental understanding of what is meant by a given axiomatic term, it's a case where one debater redefines an axiomatic term ad hoc:
I would argue that the latter
results from the former. One debater redefines a term mid-stride
because they realize they have a different understanding than the other debater. What turns it from "clarification" into a "fallacy" is when the clarification contains simply
arbitrary details.
To use your example:
A: Piracy isn't theft
B: Yes it is, it is taking without paying
A: Piracy isn't
true theft
That is basically what's happening here, clumsy though it may be. The clarification they make first
isn't that it's a legal definition thing. It's that "In order to be theft, the other person has to now be
missing that property." That's not a requirement of the definition of "stealing." It's being arbitrarily added in order to narrow the working definition and exclude my point after-the-fact -- rather than using the
axiomatic definition, they are using a more strict definition that is
idiomatic to the piracy community of the time (or maybe just "self-serving").
Another example is appending, "It's not stealing unless it's
physical property." Another arbitrary adjustment to the definition to avoid adjusting the position.
However, I can understand where your grievance with my use of NTS may lie:
This is different from someone saying, "Piracy is not stealing
in the eyes of the law, and citing, for instance,
Downling vs. United States (1985) (cited earlier). At this point, it became clear that myself and the other participant were working from definitions that come from two different arenas -- myself, from the colloquial understanding, the other from the more strict legal understanding.
At that point, the debate changed focus to account for the two of us approaching from different frames of reference. No fallacy involved, just a lack of clarity that was soon corrected.
A: "Piracy is not stealing."
B: "Piracy fits the Oxford definition of stealing, in addition to the general public understanding of the term -- obtaining something that ain't yours."
A: "Ah, I see. Piracy is not stealing
in the eyes of the law, and is treated as a separate crime (copyright infringement)."
B: "Ah, I see as well. I'm speaking in the general sense, not the strict legal sense. I disagree with the current legal stance (from 1985) on ideological grounds."
Again, there's no redefinition of terms in that debate -- there was simply a failure to
define the terms of discussion beforehand. Happens all the time on the internet, and it's no biggie to go back and set the right stage.
Hopefully this cleared up what I'm saying is (and isn't) a No True Scotsman argument here.